Chapter 5 - Complaint Procedures | State Operations Manual

State Operations Manual

Chapter 5 - Complaint Procedures

Table of Contents

(Rev. 212, 02-10-23)

Transmittals for Chapter 5

Sections 5000 to 5080.1 relate to all Medicare/Medicaid-certified

provider/supplier types.

5000 - Management of Complaints and Incidents

5000.1 - Purpose of the Complaint/Incident Process

5000.2 - Overview

5010 - General Intake Process

5010.1 - Information to Collect From Complainant

5010.2 - Information to Provide to Complainant

5010.3 - Notification to the RO

5050 - CMS Regional Office Responsibility for Monitoring SA Management of

Complaints and Incidents

5060 - ASPEN Complaints/Incidents Tracking System (ACTS)

5060.1-Data Entry

5060.2-Reports

5070 - Priority Assignment for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long

Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA

5075 - Priority Definitions for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long

Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA

5075.1 - Immediate Jeopardy (for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

5075.2 - Non-Immediate Jeopardy - High (for Nursing Homes and

Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and

EMTALA)

5075.3 - Non-Immediate Jeopardy - Medium (for Nursing Homes and

Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers)

5075.4 - Non-Immediate Jeopardy – Low (for Nursing Homes and

Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers)

5075.5 - Administrative Review/Offsite Investigation (for Nursing Homes

and Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers)

5075.6 - Referral – Immediate (for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

5075.7 - Referral – Other (for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-Deemed

Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

5075.8 - No Action Necessary (for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

5075.9 - Maximum Timeframes Related to the Federal Onsite

Investigation of Complaints/Incidents

5077 - State Monitoring Visits

5078 - Pre-survey Activities

5079 - Entrance Conference - Non-Long Term Care

5080 - Investigation Findings and Reports

5080.1 - Report to the Complainant

5080.2 - Survey Exit Conference and Report to the Provider/Supplier

Sections 5100 to 5170 relate to deemed providers/suppliers.

5100 - Investigation of Complaints for Deemed Providers/Suppliers

5100.1 - Basis for Investigation

5100.2 - Initial Response to Complainant

5110 - Post-Survey Procedures

5110.1 - Substantial Compliance

5110.2 - Condition-Level, IJ

5110.3 - Condition-Level, Non-IJ

5110.4 - Full Survey after Complaint Survey with Condition-level Deficiencies,

When Authorized by the RO

5120 - Life Safety Code Guidance for Deemed Providers/Suppliers

5130 - Deemed Provider/ Supplier Hospital Refusal of Complaint Investigation Surveys

5140 - Complaints Involving HIV-Infected Individuals

5150 - Investigating Complaints Involving ESRD Services Provided by Deemed

Hospitals or CAHs

5160 - Investigating Complaints Against ESRD Suppliers

Section 5170 Relates to Hospital Restraint/Seclusion Death Reporting

and Investigation

5170 - Hospital Restraints/Seclusion Death Reporting and Investigation

5170.1 - Background

5170.2 - Responsibilities

5170.3 - Process

Sections 5200 to 5240 relate to all non-deemed provider/supplier types,

excluding nursing homes (SNFs/NFs).

5200 - Investigating Complaints for Non-Deemed Providers/Suppliers, Excluding

Nursing Homes (SNFs/NFs)

5200.1 - General Procedures

5200.2 - Special Procedures for Psychiatric Hospitals

5210- Processing of Complaints Originating with or Investigated by the RO

5220 - Investigation Conducted Directly by the RO

5230- Special RO Processing

5240 - Complaints - HHA Hotline

Sections 5300 to 5390 relate to nursing homes.

5300 - Investigation of Complaints for Nursing Homes

5300.1 - Task 1: Offsite Survey Preparation

5300.2 - Task 2: Entrance Conference/Onsite Preparatory Activities

5300.3 - Task 5: Information Gathering

5300.4 - Task 6: Information Analysis

5300.5 - Task 7: Exit Conference

5310 - Action on Allegations of Resident Neglect and Abuse, and Misappropriation of

Resident Property for Nursing Homes

5310.1 - Written Procedures

5310.2 - Review and Triage of Allegation

5310.2 A-Immediate Jeopardy Priority

5310.3 - Investigating Allegations

5310.4 - Factors Beyond the Control of the Individual

5320 - Reporting Findings of Abuse, Neglect, or Misappropriation of Property to the

Nurse Aide Registry

5320.1 - Notification Procedures- Preliminary Determinations

5320.2 - Conduct of Hearing for Nurse Aides

5320.3 - Reporting Findings

5330 - Reporting Abuse to Law Enforcement and the Medicaid Fraud Control Unit for

Nursing Homes

5340 - Post-Survey Certification Actions for Nursing Homes

5350 - Data Entry

5360 - Processing of Complaints Originating with or Investigated by the CMS RO

5370 - Pre-Investigation Actions on Allegations Originating Through the RO

5380 - RO Processing of RO Investigated Complaints

5390 - RO Oversight of Complaint-Related Processes

Sections 5400 to 5480.2 relate to alleged EMTALA violations

5400 - Investigations Involving Alleged EMTALA Violations

5410 - EMTALA and Born-Alive Infants Protection Act of 2002

5410.1 - Interaction of the Born-Alive Infant Protection Act and

EMTALA

5410.3 - Conduct of Investigations

5420 - Basis for Investigation

5430 - RO Direction of Investigation

5430.1 - Evaluation of Allegation

5430.2 - Request for Investigation of Allegations

5440 - Conducting an Investigation

5440.1 - Selecting the Team

5440.2 - Scheduling the Investigation

5440.3 - Guidelines for Surveyors Conducting Investigations

5440.4 - Conducting the Investigation

5440.5 - Exit Conference

5450 - Forwarding Report of Investigation to the RO

5460 - RO Review of Investigation

5460.1 - Hospital Is In Compliance - No Past Violation

5460.2 - Hospital Is In Compliance - Past Violation, No Termination

5460.3 - Hospital Is Not in Compliance - Immediate Jeopardy to Patient

Health and Safety

5460.4 - Hospital Is Not in Compliance - Situation Does Not Pose an

Immediate Jeopardy to Patient Health and Safety

5465 - Procedures for the 5-day QIO Review of Alleged Violations of 42 CFR 489.24

5470 - Termination Procedures for EMTALA Violations

5470.1 - Procedures for Termination when the EMTALA Violation is an

Immediate Jeopardy to Patient Health and Safety

5470.2 - Procedures for Termination When the EMTALA Violation is Not

Immediate Jeopardy to Patient Health and Safety

5480 - Procedures for QIO Review of Confirmed EMTALA Violation

5480.1 - Procedures for Coordinating 60 day QIO Review

5480.2 - EMTALA Case Referral to OIG

5480.3 - Releasing QIO Assessment

Sections 5500 to 5590 relate CLIA.

5500 - Complaints Involving Unaccredited Laboratories

5500.1 - Control

5500.2 - Acknowledgment

5500.3 - Evaluation

5500.4 - Scheduling Investigations

5500.5 - Conducting Investigations

5500.6 - Conducting Investigations in a Laboratory with a Certificate of

Waiver

5500.7 - Conducting Investigations in a Laboratory with a Certificate for

PPM Procedures

5500.8 - Post Investigation Actions

5500.9 - Resolution/Closeout

5510 - CLIA-Exempt Laboratory Complaint Investigations - General

5520 - Review of CLIA-Exempt Laboratory Complaints

5530 - Conducting Complaint Investigations and Surveys for CLIA-Exempt Laboratories

5540 - Complaint Investigations and Surveys of Accredited Laboratories Under CLIA

5550 - RO Direction of Complaint Investigation of an Accredited Laboratory

5560 - Conducting Complaint Survey of an Accredited Laboratory

5570 - Forwarding Investigation Report to RO

5580 - Accredited Laboratory Found in Compliance Following a Complaint Survey

5590 - Accredited Laboratory Found Not in Condition-level Compliance Following a

Complaint Survey

5000 - Management of Complaints and Incidents

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

NOTE: “CMS Regional Office (RO)” is used interchangeably with “CMS location”

throughout this Chapter of the SOM.

5000.1 – Purpose of the Complaint/Incident Process

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

Mission: To protect Medicare/Medicaid beneficiaries from abuse, neglect, exploitation,

inadequate care or supervision.

The goal of the Federal complaint/incident process is to establish a system that will assist

in promoting and protecting the health, safety, and welfare of residents, patients, and

clients receiving health care services. The complaint/incident management system has

three objectives.

1. The first objective and priority for the complaint/incident management system is

protective oversight. This is accomplished by analyzing the complaint allegations

and reported incidents received to identify and respond to those that appear to

pose the greatest potential for harming beneficiaries (has caused or is likely to

cause, serious injury, harm, impairment or death). Complaints/incidents of this

type that allege an immediate threat to the health, safety or welfare of individuals

are investigated immediately.

2. The second objective is prevention. Complaints/incidents that do not allege a

threat of serious harm are investigated to determine if a problem exists that could

have a negative impact on the healthcare services provided. The investigation of

these complaints/incidents is designed to identify and correct less serious

complaints/incident to prevent the escalation of these problems into more serious

situations that would threaten the health, safety and welfare of the individuals

receiving the service. These complaints/incidents are also prioritized and

investigated based on the seriousness of the allegations.

Numerous or more frequent complaints/incidents may indicate systemic problems

and therefore may be assigned a higher priority for investigation.

3. The third objective is to promote efficiency and quality within the health care

delivery system. Complaints/incidents that are not directly related to Federal

requirements are forwarded to the appropriate agency(ies) for follow-up and

investigation. Complaints/incidents in this category may include but are not

limited to Medicare/Medicaid fraud, complaints against individual licensed

practitioners, and billing issues.

5000.2 – Overview

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

All the procedures in this chapter are followed when complaints and reported incidents,

including referrals from public entities, involve Medicare-certified providers/suppliers,

Medicaid-certified providers/suppliers, or CLIA-certified laboratories. The investigation

and resolution of complaints are critical certification activities. The CMS, the State

Medicaid Agency (SMA), and the State survey agency (SA) are responsible for ensuring

that participating providers/suppliers of health care services continually meet Federal

requirements. This requires that the SA promptly reviews complaints/incidents, conducts

unannounced onsite investigations of reports alleging noncompliance, and informs the

CMS Regional Office (RO) and/or the SMA any time certification requirements are

found to be out of compliance.

Since there are multiple activities associated with the management of complaints and

incidents, responsibilities often cut across organizational lines. Thus, the SA must

demonstrate clear-cut accountability for each step of the process and a focal

coordinating/controlling responsibility to assure timely and appropriate action. The SA’s

responsibilities cannot be delegated.

5010 - General Intake Process

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

A complaint is an allegation of noncompliance with Federal and/or State requirements. If

the SA determines that the allegation(s) falls within the authority of the SA, the SA

determines the severity and urgency of the allegations, so that appropriate and timely

action can be pursued. Each SA is expected to have written policies and procedures to

ensure that the appropriate response is taken for all allegations and is consistent with

Federal requirements as well as with procedures in the State Operations Manual. This

structure needs to include response timelines and a process to document actions taken by

the SA in response to allegations. If a State’s time frames for the investigation of a

complaint/incident are more stringent than the Federal time frames, the intake is

prioritized using the State’s timeframes. The SA is expected to be able to share the logic

and rationale that was utilized in prioritizing the complaint/incident for investigation.

The SA response must be designed to protect the health and safety of all residents,

patients, and clients.

Besides the SA, other public entities receive information and/or perform investigations.

These entities include the office of the coroner or medical examiner, end-stage renal

disease (ESRD) networks, quality improvement networks (QINs), law enforcement, the

ombudsman’s office, and protection and advocacy systems. At times, these public

entities will forward information to the SA if there are concerns about the health and

safety of residents, patients, and clients. The SAs are required to manage and investigate

these referrals as complaints.

An allegation is an assertion of noncompliance with Federal health and safety

regulations. The point of receipt of the allegation is a critical fact-finding and decision-

making point. The SA ensures that its complaint telephone number is listed in local

directories. Information regarding the care, treatment and services provided to

beneficiaries can come from a variety of sources, including beneficiaries themselves,

beneficiaries’ family members, health care providers, concerned citizens, public agencies,

or media reports. Report sources may be verbal or written. In some instances, the

complainant may request anonymity.

The SA and RO ensure the privacy and anonymity of every complainant. Generally, the

SA follows the disclosure procedures under chapter 3, §3308. The SA discloses the

complainant’s identity only to those individuals with a need to know who are acting in an

official capacity to investigate the complaint.

In addition to these Federal requirements, the SA abides by any State procedures not in

direct conflict with CMS instructions. The SA notifies the RO if State regulations

conflict directly with any part of these complaint procedures.

See also Section 5310.1 for information related to facility-reported incidents.

5010.1 - Information to Collect From Complainant

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The SA collects information necessary to make important decisions about the allegations.

In instances where written or verbal allegations are received, subsequent communication

may be necessary to obtain additional information.

Comprehensive information should be collected during the intake process to allow for

proper prioritization, including the following:

• Information about the complainant (e.g., name, address, telephone, etc.);

• Individuals involved and affected;

• Narrative/specifics of the complainant’s concerns including the date, and time of

the allegation;

• The complainant’s views about the frequency and pervasiveness of the allegation;

• Name of the provider/supplier including location (e.g., unit, room, floor) of the

allegation, if applicable;

• How/why the complainant believes the alleged event occurred;

• Whether the complainant initiated other courses of action, such as reporting to

other agencies, discussing issues with the provider, and obtaining a

response/resolution; and

• The complainant’s expectation/desire for resolution/remedy, if appropriate.

5010.2 - Information to Provide to Complainant

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The complaint intake process assists the complainant in resolving his/her conflicts. As

part of the intake process the SA provides the following:

• Policies and procedures for handling intakes including the scope of the SA’s

regulatory authority and any considerations pertaining to confidentiality;

• The course of action that the SA or RO will take and the anticipated time frames;

• Information about other appropriate agencies that could provide assistance

including the name and telephone number of a contact person, if available; and

• A SA contact name and number for follow-up by the complainant.

NOTE FOR DEEMED PROVIDERS/SUPPLIERS: If a complaint does not allege

condition-level noncompliance, the SA may: 1) advise the complainant to file the

complaint to the accrediting organization (AO), or 2) ask for the complainant's

permission to release the information to the AO.

5010.3 – Notification to the RO

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

1 – Notification to the RO

The SA immediately forwards allegations involving the following to the RO:

• Deemed providers/suppliers;

• Hospital and psychiatric residential treatment facility (PRTF) restraint/seclusion-

related deaths;

• EMTALA complaints;

• Fires resulting in serious injury or death in a Medicare/Medicaid-certified facility;

• Federal facilities;

• Religious Non-medical Health Care Institutions (RNHCIs)(evaluation performed

by Region I, Boston, only);

• CLIA-certified laboratories holding a certificate of accreditation. (See Chapter 6).

• CLIA-exempt laboratory. (See Chapter 6);

• Blood transfusion-related fatalities (See Chapter 6 and Appendix C);

• Over-utilization or inappropriate utilization of services within the QIO’s

jurisdiction;

• Civil rights violations; or

• Medicare or Medicaid fraud

2 – Special Cases

The SA considers whether notification to the RO is appropriate. If a complaint is

especially significant, sensitive, or attracting broad public or media attention, the SA

informs the RO immediately. Additionally, the SA needs to consider any other early

notice requirements prescribed by other State or Federal policies or interagency

agreements.

5050 - CMS Regional Office Responsibility for Monitoring SA

Management of Complaints and Incidents

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

CMS ROs are responsible for monitoring the SAs’ management of complaints and

incidents to assure that the SAs are complying with the provisions set forth in Federal

regulations, the SOM, and CMS policy memoranda. As part of the monitoring process,

the SAs will be evaluated in accordance with the criteria set forth by the State

Performance Standard Review. Many States have State laws and regulations that specify

how to manage complaints and incidents. Whenever possible, State and Federal

requirements should be integrated to avoid unnecessary duplication. CMS ROs should

accept State requirements that meet or exceed the intent of the Federal requirements. At

a minimum, it is expected that noncompliance with Federal requirements resulting from a

complaint or reported incident will receive follow-up and be documented in the Aspen

Complaints Tracking System (ACTS).

5060 – ASPEN Complaints/Incidents Tracking System (ACTS)

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

The SA collects information related to complaints and facility-reported incidents and

uses a system to track and monitor the receipt and disposition of complaint and incident

intakes.

The ASPEN Complaints/Incidents Tracking System (ACTS) is designed to track,

process, and report on complaints and incidents reported against health care providers

and suppliers regulated by CMS. It is designed to manage all operations associated with

complaint/incident processing, from initial intake and investigation through the final

disposition.

The ACTS must be used for the intake of all allegations against Medicare/Medicaid-

certified providers/suppliers and CLIA. The ACTS is a Federal system and data entered

into ACTS is subject to Federal laws governing disclosure and the protection of an

individual’s right to privacy.

A complaint/incident record is created in ACTS based on how the allegation is received

by the SA or RO. For example, if one person calls with ten allegations about one

provider/supplier, this is counted as one complaint record. If six people call with the

same allegation, this is counted as six telephone calls and is counted as six complaint

records. If one letter is received with one or many allegations and is signed by 20 people,

this is counted as one complaint record.

5060.1 - Data Entry

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

The SAs and ROs are required to enter into ACTS:

• All complaints gathered as part of Federal survey and certification

responsibilities, regardless if an onsite survey is conducted [i.e., complaints

related to noncompliance with the Federal condition(s) of participation (COPs),

condition(s) for coverage (CFCs), condition(s) for certification, requirement(s)

for participation (RFPs), or EMTALA requirement(s)]; and

• For nursing homes, all self-reported incidents that are reported under Federal

law and the requirements for participation [i.e., reporting to law enforcement of

crimes occurring in LTC facilities – §1150B of the Social Security Act and

§483.12(b)(5); alleged violations of abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment,

including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident property –

§483.12(c)(1) and (4)]. For non-long term care providers/suppliers, all self-

reported incidents that require a Federal onsite survey.

Revisions related to the entry of self-reported incidents into ACTS will be implemented no

later than October 1, 2024, in order to provide time for the SAs to prepare given the

resource constraints in the SAs.

The information recorded in ACTS reflects the allegation furnished by the

complainant/provider/supplier at the time of the intake. At a minimum, if the intake

information requires an onsite survey and the allegation may involve both Federal and

State licensure requirements, a Federal onsite survey is completed and entered into

ACTS.

If an investigation finds one or more violations of Federal requirements, the findings

must be cited under the appropriate tags and entered into the Federal system even if the

information is entered into a State licensure data system. Since this information is

essential to the effective management of the survey and certification program, it is

important that SAs complete the required fields in ACTS in a timely manner.

Exhibit 23 defines the required fields in ACTS.

Tracking of Referrals in ACTS

The SAs are required to enter into ACTS all referrals from public entities that allege

noncompliance with the Federal requirements. For reporting purposes, the SAs should

enter these cases as complaints (i.e., Intake Type=Complaint, Intake Subtype=Federal

COPs, CFCs, RFPs, EMTALA). In order to more quickly identify which of these cases

stem from a referral, the SAs are expected to check the appropriate category under the

“Source” field. For example, for referrals from the coroner’s office, states would check

“Coroner” under the “Source” field for the intake.

Tracking of State Monitoring Visits (See Section 5077) in ACTS

When a State Monitoring Visit results in a Federal deficiency, the SA will identify the

survey in ASPEN as “complaint” and create an intake and survey record in ACTS. The

data should be entered into ACTS as follows:

• Intake Type = Complaint;

• Intake Subtype = Federal COPs, CFCs, RFPs, EMTALA;

• Source = State SA;

• Priority = can vary; and

• Allegation Type = State Monitoring.

5060.2 - Reports

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

The ACTS produces a variety of reports that may be used for analysis and evaluation of

provider/supplier performance. Complaint/incident reports are generated and displayed

through menus that can be accessed in ACTS. Reports may be produced for one

provider/supplier, or reports may be combined and present information for multiple

providers/suppliers. Report filtering criteria is available through the Report

Customization window, which allows the user to select criteria for the report to meet the

user’s specifications. Refer to the ACTS Procedures Guide for a list and description of

the reports available in ACTS.

NOTE:

FOR ADDITIONAL INFORMATION ON SPECIFIC POLICIES RELATED TO:

• DEEMED PROVIDERS AND SUPPLIERS, EXCLUDING CLIA, SEE

SECTION 5100

• NON-DEEMED PROVIDERS AND SUPPLIERS, SEE SECTION 5200

• NURSING HOMES, SEE SECTION 5300

• EMTALA, SEE SECTION 5400

• CLIA LABORATORIES, SEE SECTION 5500

• ESRD, SEE SECTION 5160 AND SECTION 5170

5070 - Priority Assignment for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

This section does not apply to clinical laboratories subject to the Clinical

Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA). See Sections 5500 – 5590

for CLIA information.

An assessment of each complaint or incident intake must be made by an individual who

is professionally qualified to evaluate the nature of the problem based upon his/her

knowledge of Federal requirements and his/her knowledge of current clinical standards of

practice.

From a complainant’s allegation(s) or an allegation from a facility-reported incident, the

SA/CMS Location identifies potential concerns where the provider/supplier may not be in

compliance with Federal requirements. The SA/CMS Location must review the

allegation(s) for all requirements that apply and should be investigated. These

requirements will be specific to each health care entity. The surveyor then investigates

each of those areas of concern and health care entity type.

The role of the surveyor is not to validate whether the events contained in the allegation

had occurred, but it is to determine whether the facility is in compliance with the Federal

requirements for Medicare/Medicaid-certified providers/suppliers. If CMS or the SA

believes that the complaint or facility-reported incident should also be investigated under

the jurisdiction of another entity, referrals should be made as appropriate (e.g., law

enforcement for criminal activity, State licensing boards for health care practitioners, the

Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) for billing issues).

In the case of nursing homes, in situations where a determination is made that immediate

jeopardy may be present and ongoing, the SA must start the on-site investigation within

three business days of receipt of the initial complaint or incident report. Receipt of the

initial complaint or incident report means when the report is received by the SA, whether

it is received by the SA directly, or another State agency under arrangement or

contractor that is receiving the report on behalf of the SA from the complainant or

facility. Also, if a complaint or facility-reported incident is received after business hours,

then it is considered to be received on the next business day, for purposes of calculating

the investigation timeframe. For example, if a complaint is received on Saturday and the

SA office is closed during the weekend, then the following Monday will be used to

calculate the investigation timeframe. Revisions related to the timeframes for

investigating nursing home complaints and facility-reported incidents will be

implemented no later than October 1, 2023, to provide time for the SAs to prepare given

the resource constraints in the SAs.

For non-long term care providers/suppliers, in situations where a determination is made

that immediate jeopardy may be present and ongoing, the SA is required to start the on-

site investigation within two business days of receipt of the complaint or incident report,

or, in the case of a deemed provider or supplier, within two business days of RO

authorization for investigation. The same process applies to EMTALA complaints or a

survey related to a report of a hospital or CAH Distinct Part Unit patient death associated

with the use of restraint or seclusion. The SA’s investigation must be initiated within two

business days of RO authorization for investigation.

Generally, an alleged event occurring more than 12 months prior to the intake date would

not require a complaint investigation. However, the SA is not precluded from conducting

a Federal investigation (with appropriate RO authorization, where required) to determine

current compliance status based on the concerns identified in the complaint.

For nursing homes, an onsite survey may not be required if there is sufficient evidence

that the facility does not have continuing noncompliance and the alleged event occurred

before the last standard survey.

For all intakes concerning deemed status providers or suppliers where the intake involves

allegations of substantial noncompliance (in other words, the allegation would result in a

condition-level deficiency citation if found to be true and uncorrected), the SA must

submit a request for RO approval of a complaint validation survey (i.e., substantial

allegation validation survey). The SA must obtain RO approval before conducting a

substantial allegation validation survey. The RO will authorize the SA to conduct the

survey by issuing electronically via ACTS a Form CMS-2802, which will indicate the

specific conditions for which the SA must assess compliance. The RO must authorize

assessment of compliance for a whole condition and not just for particular standards

within a condition, unless the Form CMS-2802 for the applicable provider/supplier type

permits selection of a specific standard, e.g., Life Safety Code.

All allegations of EMTALA violations related to a hospital (which also includes cancer,

children’s, long term care, psychiatric and rehabilitation hospitals) or CAH, regardless of

whether the hospital or CAH is deemed, must be referred to the RO. The RO will

determine whether the SA will conduct an EMTALA investigation.

In cases where the SA or RO has noted a pattern of similar complaints about a specific

provider or supplier, each of which on its own merits would be triaged at a medium or

low level, the SA or RO has the discretion to assign a higher triage level to a current

intake based on the noted pattern, in order to ensure timely investigation of the

provider’s/supplier’s compliance with the applicable requirements or Conditions.

CMS expects SAs to prioritize complaints at the appropriate level that is warranted. The

timeframes in Section 5075 below represent maximum timeframes for investigation

(Note: Revisions related to the timeframes for investigating nursing home complaints and

facility-reported incidents will be implemented no later than October 1, 2023, to provide

time for the SAs to prepare given the resource constraints in the SAs); the SA is not

precluded from investigating complaints and facility-reported incidents within a shorter

timeframe. In addition, the SA is not precluded from taking other factors into

consideration in its triage decision. For example, the SA may identify a trend in

allegations that indicates an increased risk of harm to residents or the SA may receive

corroborating information from other complainants regarding the allegation.

See also Section 5310.2 for requirements for nursing home facility-reported incidents.

5075 - Priority Definitions for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

5075.1 - Immediate Jeopardy (for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

General Provisions

The regulations at 42 CFR 489.3 define immediate jeopardy as, “A situation in which the

provider’s noncompliance with one or more requirements of participation has caused, or

is likely to cause, serious injury, harm, impairment, or death to a resident.” Appendix Q

contains the Guidelines for Determining Immediate Jeopardy. Intakes are assigned this

priority if the alleged noncompliance indicates there was serious injury, harm,

impairment or death of a patient or resident, or the likelihood for such, and there

continues to be an immediate risk of serious injury, harm, impairment or death of a

patient or resident unless immediate corrective action is taken. In addition, for nursing

homes, facility-reported incidents are assigned this priority if immediate jeopardy may

have occurred, regardless of whether an immediate risk may continue to exist. Examples

of intakes that are assigned this priority include, but are not limited to, the following:

• All intakes alleging abuse of a resident/patient/client and it is uncertain that they

are adequately protected.

• For nursing homes, all intakes alleging eviction of a resident to an unsafe

location.

• Intakes alleging EMTALA noncompliance may also be assigned this priority.

• Any hospital self-reported incident of patient death associated with use of

restraint or seclusion which the RO determines requires an on-site investigation is

also assigned this priority.

When the SA or RO makes the determination that a complaint or incident report suggests

an immediate jeopardy may be present, the investigation is to be initiated in accordance

with Section 5075.9.

See also Section 5310.2A for additional guidance related to nursing home facility-

reported incidents. (Note: Revisions related to the timeframes for investigating nursing

home complaints and facility-reported incidents will be implemented no later than

October 1, 2023, to provide time for the SAs to prepare given the resource constraints in

the SAs.)

Fires Resulting in Serious Injury or Death

Fires resulting in serious injury or death are prioritized as “immediate jeopardy”. The

following actions are taken when a report of a fire resulting in serious injury or death in a

Medicare/Medicaid certified facility is received from any source:

The SA

• Enters the complaint or self-reported incident into ACTS (Priority = IJ,

Allegation Category = Life Safety Code);

• Informs the appropriate RO of fire resulting in serious injury or death no

later than one working day after receipt of the intake;

• Compiles information as needed to present a comprehensive picture of the

situation surrounding the fire;

• Takes appropriate action necessary to assist the Medicare/Medicaid-

certified provider/supplier to protect and/or relocate residents or patients

from further harm; and

• Performs the Life Safety Code investigation.

The RO

• Informs CMS Central Office (CO) of the fire and planned actions, sending

a copy of the alert to the Life Safety Code specialist;

• Consults with the CO to determine whether there is an indication for CO

participation in the survey for program evaluation purposes;

• Reports any findings and actions taken by the SA to the CO at the end of

the on-site survey; and

• At its discretion, may accompany the SA during the on-site survey.

The CO

• Consults with the RO to determine whether or not issues are present that

indicate further investigation to determine the adequacy of current

standards and their application; and

• In certain cases, CO staff may accompany regional and/or state personnel

on the on-site survey.

5075.2 - Non-Immediate Jeopardy - High Priority (for Nursing Homes

and Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long Term Care

Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

Nursing Homes:

Intakes are assigned a “high” priority if the alleged noncompliance with one or more

requirements may have caused harm that negatively impacts the individual’s mental,

physical and/or psychosocial status and are of such consequence to the person’s well-

being that a rapid response by the SA is indicated. Usually, specific rather than general

information (such as: descriptive identifiers, individual names, date/time/location of

occurrence, description of harm, etc.) factors into the assignment of this level of priority.

When the SA makes the determination that the alleged noncompliance may have caused

actual physical and/or psychosocial harm to the resident(s), the SA must initiate an onsite

survey within an annual average of 15 business days of receipt of the initial report, not to

exceed 18 business days. Investigating nursing home complaints and facility-reported

incidents according to these timeframes will be implemented no later than October 1,

2023, to provide time for the SAs to prepare given the resource constraints in the SAs.

NOTE: Exhibit 22 provides additional guidance to distinguish between the priorities of

“immediate jeopardy” and “non-immediate jeopardy - high” for nursing home

complaints/incidents.

NOTE: Please refer to Tag F610 in Appendix PP of the State Operations Manual for

information related to facility responses to alleged violations, including facility

investigation, resident protection, and corrective actions.

Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers

Intakes are assigned this priority if the alleged noncompliance with the applicable

Conditions of Participation, Coverage or Certification, or EMTALA requirements, if

found to be true and uncorrected, would not represent an IJ, but would result in a

determination of substantial noncompliance, i.e., at least one condition-level deficiency.

Intakes assigned this priority require an onsite survey to be initiated within 45 calendar

days after intake prioritization for non-deemed providers/suppliers, and within 45

calendar days after authorization of the investigation by the RO for deemed status

providers/suppliers. The RO has the discretion to request the onsite survey be initiated in

less than 45 calendar days.

5075.3 - Non-Immediate Jeopardy - Medium Priority (for Nursing

Homes and Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long Term Care

Providers/Suppliers)

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

Nursing Homes:

Complaints are assigned a “medium” priority if the alleged noncompliance with one or

more requirements caused no actual physical and/or psychosocial harm but there is the

potential for more than minimal harm to the resident(s) (Severity Level 2). Facility-

reported incidents are assigned a “medium” priority if the alleged noncompliance with

one or more requirements caused no actual physical and/or psychosocial harm but there

is the potential for more than minimal harm to the resident(s) (Severity Level 2) and the

facility has not provided an adequate response to the allegation or it is not known

whether the facility provided an adequate response. For complaints and facility-reported

incidents that are assigned a “medium” priority, the SA must initiate an onsite survey

within 45 calendar days of receipt of the initial report. Investigating nursing home

complaints and facility-reported incidents according to this timeframe will be

implemented no later than October 1, 2023, to provide time for the SAs to prepare given

the resource constraints in the SAs.

NOTE: Please refer to Tag F610 in Appendix PP of the State Operations Manual for

surveyor guidance related to facility responses to alleged violations, including facility

investigation, resident protection, and corrective actions.

Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers

Intakes are assigned this priority if the alleged noncompliance with one or more standards

within a Condition of Participation, Condition for Coverage or Condition for Certification

is limited in manner and degree and/or caused, or may cause, harm that is of limited

consequence and does not impair the individual’s mental, physical and/or psychosocial

status or function. In other words, the incident or complaint, if found to be true and

uncorrected, would not result in a determination of substantial non-compliance, i.e., there

would not be any condition-level deficiency.

For non-deemed providers/suppliers, intakes assigned this priority are scheduled in

accordance with section 5075.9 for investigation no later than when the next on-site

survey occurs.

For deemed providers/suppliers, the SA (or RO, if the RO handled the intake)

advises the complainant that the allegation does not meet the criteria for a Federal

investigation and refers the complainant to the applicable accrediting

organization(s)(AOs) in accordance with the provisions of section 5100.2.

5075.4 - Non-Immediate Jeopardy – Low Priority (for Nursing Homes

and Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long Term Care

Providers/Suppliers)

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

Nursing Homes

Intakes are assigned a “low” priority if the alleged noncompliance with one or more

requirements may have caused no actual harm with a potential for minimal harm

(Severity Level 1). The investigation is to be initiated in accordance with section 5075.9.

Investigating nursing home complaints and facility-reported incidents according to

section 5075.9 will be implemented no later than October 1, 2023, to provide time for the

SAs to prepare given the resource constraints in the SAs.

In addition, facility-reported incidents are assigned a “low” priority if the alleged

noncompliance with one or more requirements may have caused no actual physical

and/or psychosocial harm but there is the potential for more than minimal harm to the

resident(s)(Severity Level 2) and the facility has provided a potentially adequate

response to the allegation.

NOTE: Please refer to Tag F610 in Appendix PP of the State Operations Manual for

information related to facility responses to alleged violations, including facility

investigation, resident protection, and corrective actions.

The SA reviews these intakes for tracking of possible trends in order to determine if there

are common themes that suggest areas for focused attention when the next on-site survey

occurs. If the SA identifies a trend that suggests similar concerns, the SA either

investigates the concerns during the next standard or complaint survey or initiates a

complaint survey.

Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers

Intakes are assigned this priority if the alleged noncompliance with one or more standards

within a Condition of Participation, Coverage or Certification may have caused physical,

mental and/or psychosocial discomfort that does not constitute injury or damage.

For non-deemed providers/suppliers, the SA reviews these intakes for tracking of

possible trends in the nature of complaints in order to determine if there are common

themes that suggest areas for focused attention when the next on-site survey occurs.

Individual investigations of each intake are not required, although the SA has the

discretion to conduct a complaint survey if trending suggests a number of similar

problems that might warrant an on-site investigation.

For deemed providers/suppliers, the SA (or RO, if the RO handled the intake) advises

the complainant that the allegation does not meet the criteria for a Federal investigation

and refers the complainant to the applicable accreditation organization(s)(AOs) in

accordance with the provisions of section 5100.2.

5075.5 - Administrative Review/Offsite Investigation (for Nursing

Homes and Deemed and Non-Deemed Non-Long Term Care

Providers/Suppliers)

(Rev. 120, Issued: 09-19-14, Effective: 09-19-14, Implementation: 09-19-14)

Nursing Homes

Intakes are assigned an “administrative review/offsite investigation” priority if an onsite

investigation is not necessary. However, the SA or RO conducts and documents in the

provider file an offsite administrative review (e.g., written/verbal communication or

documentation) to determine if further action is necessary. Where an administrative

review/offsite investigation is conducted by the SA, the SA may confirm the findings at

the next onsite survey.

Non-long Term Care Providers/Suppliers

For non-long term care providers/suppliers, both deemed and non-deemed, administrative

review or offsite investigation is generally not permitted. Exceptions are usually limited

to the following types of cases:

• RO review of alleged noncompliance with provider agreement requirements found in

42 CFR Part 489, such as:

• Alleged discrimination against Medicare beneficiaries, or

• Failure of a hospital to accept Medicare-like payment rates for treatment

provided to a patient referred by an Indian Health Service or tribal facility.

• RO review in the case of a CAH:

• Of a notice by the MAC of failure of a CAH to maintain an average annual

per patient length of stay not exceeding 96 hours, or

• Whether a relocating CAH or an existing hospital seeking to convert to CAH

status satisfies the CAH location requirements.

The RO documents in the provider/supplier file the results of such administrative review

or offsite investigation. Note: depending on RO practice, such administrative review

cases may or may not be entered into ACTS.

5075.6 - Referral – Immediate (for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

Intakes are assigned a “Referral – Immediate” priority if the nature and seriousness of a

complaint/incident or State procedures requires the referral or reporting of this

information for investigation to another agency, board, or ESRD network without delay.

For example, if a complaint has criminal implications and the complainant has not

reported the incident to law enforcement, the SA must report the suspected crime to law

enforcement immediately (NOTE: In such cases, the referral is recorded in the

Contact/Refer tab under the ACTS intake). This priority may be assigned in addition to

one of the priorities in sections 5075.1 through 5075.5.

When the SA refers the complaint/incident to another agency or entity (e.g., law

enforcement, Ombudsman, licensure agency, etc.) for action, the SA must request a

written report on the results of the investigation by the outside entity. Referral to an

outside entity does not relieve the SA of the responsibility to assess compliance with

Federal conditions or requirements, when applicable. The timeframes for investigation

are not altered by the referral. (Expressed requests by law enforcement that the SA defer

an onsite investigation should be discussed with the CMS RO, as appropriate.)

5075.7 - Referral – Other (for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

(Rev. 120, Issued: 09-19-14, Effective: 09-19-14, Implementation: 09-19-14)

Intakes are assigned a “Referral – Other” priority when they are referred to another

agency, board, or ESRD network for investigation or for informational purposes. This

priority may be assigned in addition to one of the priorities in sections 5075.1 through

5075.5.

When the SA refers the complaint/incident to another agency or entity (e.g., law

enforcement, Ombudsman, licensure agency, etc.) for action, the SA must request a

written report on the results of the investigation by the outside entity. Referral to an

outside entity does not relieve the SA of the responsibility to assess compliance with

Federal conditions or requirements, when applicable. The time frames for investigation

are not altered by the referral. (Expressed requests by law enforcement that the SA defer

an onsite investigation should be discussed with the CMS RO, as appropriate.)

5075.8 - No Action Necessary (for Nursing Homes, Deemed and Non-

Deemed Non-Long Term Care Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA)

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

Intakes are assigned a “No Action Necessary” priority if the SA or RO determines with

certainty that no further investigation, analysis, or action is necessary.

For example, no action is necessary if the allegation is not related to any Federal COPs,

CFCs, conditions for certification, RFPs, or EMTALA requirement(s); or situations in which

a previous survey investigated the exact same event(s) and either did not find noncompliance,

or noncompliance was previously identified and subsequently corrected by the

provider/supplier.

This category would also be used for intakes concerning an event that occurred more than 12

months in the past, unless the SA (or the RO, in the case of a deemed status

provider/supplier) determines that a complaint investigation is nevertheless warranted.

Nursing Homes

The following are examples of reports that require no further action or investigation by

the SA/RO:

1) Facility-reported incidents that are not reportable events under Federal law or

regulations;

2) Facility-reported incidents involving injuries where the resident was able to

explain or describe how he/she received the injury as long as there is no other

indication of abuse or neglect;

3) Facility-reported incidents involving lost items, which are found and no theft is

suspected; and

4) The alleged event occurred before the last standard survey and there is sufficient

evidence that the facility does not have continuing noncompliance since the last

standard survey.

NOTE: Sufficient evidence that the facility does not have continuing noncompliance may

be indicated by a recent survey that reviewed the concern, no additional complaints or

facility reported incidents have been received regarding the same issue, and interview

with the Long-term Care Ombudsman which reveal no concerns.

5075.9 - Maximum Time Frames Related to the Federal Onsite Investigation of Complaints/Incidents

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

Intake Prioritization

Provider Type

Immediate Jeopardy (IJ)

Non-IJ High

Non-IJ Medium

Non-IJ Low

Nursing home

complaints

SA must initiate an onsite survey

within 3 business days of receipt of

the initial report.

SA must initiate an onsite

survey within an annual

average of 15 business days

of receipt of the initial report,

not to exceed 18 business

days.

SA must initiate an onsite

survey within 45 calendar

days of receipt of the initial

report.

SA must track/trend for

potential focus areas during

the next onsite survey, or

initiate a new complaint

survey.

Nursing home

incidents

With inadequate resident protection,

SA must initiate an onsite survey

within 3 business days of receipt of

the initial report.

With potentially adequate resident

protection, SA must initiate an onsite

survey within 7 business days of

receipt of the initial report.

See Section 5310.2A.

SA must initiate an onsite

survey within an annual

average of 15 business days

of receipt of the initial report,

not to exceed 18 business

days.

With an inadequate facility

response, SA must initiate an

onsite survey within 45

calendar days of receipt of

the initial report.

With a potentially adequate

facility response, SA must

track/trend for potential focus

areas during the next onsite

survey, or initiate a new

complaint survey.

Non-deemed non-long

term care

providers/suppliers

SA must initiate an onsite survey

within 2 business days of receipt.

SA must initiate an onsite

survey within 45 calendar

days of prioritization

SA must investigate no later

than when the next onsite

survey occurs

SA must track/trend for

potential focus areas during

the next onsite survey.

Deemed

providers/suppliers

SA must initiate an onsite survey

within 2 business days of receipt of

RO authorization

SA must initiate an onsite

survey within 45 calendar

days of receipt of RO

authorization.

Complainant is referred to the

applicable accrediting

organization(s)

Complainant is referred to the

applicable accrediting

organization(s)

EMTALA

SA must initiate an onsite survey

within 2 business days of receipt of

RO authorization.

SA must initiate an onsite

survey within 45 calendar

days of receipt of RO

authorization

N/A

Death associated with

restraint/seclusion-

Hospitals

SA must initiate an onsite survey

within 2 business days of receipt of

RO authorization.

N/A

Fires resulting in

serious injury or death

SA must initiate an onsite survey

within 2 business days of receipt.

N/A

Investigating nursing home complaints and facility-reported incidents according to section 5075.9 will be implemented no later than

October 1, 2023, to provide time for the SAs to prepare given the resource constraints in the SAs.

5077 - State Monitoring Visits

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

“State monitoring visits” refers to visits by the SA to oversee a provider’s/supplier’s

compliance status:

• During bankruptcy, in those cases in which CMS has authorized such visits.

• After a change of ownership, as authorized by the CMS RO.

• During or shortly after removal of immediate jeopardy when the purpose of the

visit is to ensure the welfare of the residents/clients/patients by providing an

oversight presence, rather than to perform a structured follow-up visit.

• In other circumstances, as authorized by the CMS RO.

See Section 5060 for data entry requirements for this type of visit.

5078 – Pre-Survey Activities

(Rev. 120, Issued: 09-19-14, Effective: 09-19-14, Implementation: 09-19-14)

To assist in planning the complaint investigation, prior to going on-site the SA should

review the provider’s or supplier’s prior compliance record and, as applicable, quality

indicators, ESRD Outcome List and Data or supporting information received from other

programs, such as the Ombudsman program or Protection and Advocacy program. This

process may require additional contact with the complainant. More information on pre-

survey activities may be found in Section 5170 for ESRD facilities, Section 5300.1 for

long term care facilities, in the provider/supplier-specific SOM appendices and in

Appendix V concerning EMTALA of the SOM.)

5079 – Entrance Conference - Non-Long Term Care

Providers/Suppliers

(Rev. 120, Issued: 09-19-14, Effective: 09-19-14, Implementation: 09-19-14)

Onsite complaint investigations must always be unannounced. Upon entrance, advise the

provider/supplier CEO or other senior official on duty of the general purpose of the visit.

The SA explains the reason for the survey and avoids any impression that a

predetermination has been made as to the validity of the allegation. It is important to let

the facility know why you are there, but to also protect the confidentiality of those

involved in the complaint. Do not release information that will cause opportunities to be

lost for pertinent observations, interviews, and record reviews required for a thorough

investigation. For example, in the case of a hospital, critical access hospital or ambulatory

surgical center, if the complaint is that a patient developed a life-threatening infection in

a post-surgical wound, do not tell the facility the exact complaint. Rather, tell them it is a

situation related to infection control for surgical patients. Another example, in the case

of a long term care facility, would be when a complaint that food that is intended to be

served hot is always served cold. In this case, do not tell the provider the exact

complaint. Rather, tell them it is a situation related to dietary requirements.

(See Section 5300.2 for guidance on the entrance conference for long term care facilities

as well as the provider/supplier-specific appendices of the SOM, and Appendix V of the

SOM concerning EMTALA.)

5080 - Investigation Findings and Reports

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Each SA establishes reporting policies, procedures and formats including report language

targeted to specific audiences.

5080.1 - Report to the Complainant

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

The SA/CMS location provides the complainant a written report of the investigation

findings as a summary record of the investigation.

The following principles guide preparation of the report to the complainant:

• Acknowledge the complainant’s concern(s);

• Identify the SA’s regulatory authority to investigate the complaint/incident and

any statutory or regulatory limits that may bear on the authority to conduct an

investigation;

• Provide a summary of investigation methods (e.g., on-site visit, written

correspondence, telephone inquiries, etc.);

• Provide date(s) of investigation;

• Provide an explanation of your SA’s decision-making process (NOTE: CMS and

the SA should avoid using terms such as “substantiated” and “unsubstantiated”);

• Provide the complainant with information regarding whether or not

noncompliance was identified during the complaint investigation. (NOTE: To

the extent possible, the summary should not compromise the anonymity of

individuals, or include specific situations that may be used to identify individuals,

when anonymity has been requested or is appropriate in the judgment of the SA);

• Identify where the complainant may find the Statement of Deficiencies and Plan of

Correction (e.g., posted at the nursing home, Nursing Home Care Compare,

request the CMS-2567 from the SA);

• Describe how the complainant may request a copy of the investigation report,

subject to Federal and State disclosure requirements (e.g., see 42 CFR §488.325

and FOIA requirements at 45 CFR Part 5); and

• Identify appropriate referral information (i.e., other agencies that may be

involved).

5080.2 - Survey Exit Conference and Report to the Provider/Supplier

(Rev. 155, Issued: 06-10-16, Effective: 06-10-16, Implementation: 06-10-16)

Generally, the SA conducts an exit conference with the provider/supplier at the

completion of the on-site portion of the complaint investigation survey. The SA informs

the provider/supplier of the survey findings, including a general description of any

deficiencies found. The description should be detailed enough to inform the

provider/supplier of the types of activities that require the provider’s/supplier’s corrective

action. However, the SA must not comment on the scope and severity of the deficiencies

identified for long term care facilities. For non-long term care providers/suppliers, the

SA must not comment on manner and degree, that is, whether the deficiencies identified

were condition- or standard-level. Surveyors must also not make reference to any “Tags”

related to deficiencies identified in non-long term care as this identifies condition- or

standard-level. Instead identify the regulatory grouping where concerns exist. See

Section 2724 for additional information about presenting findings during the Exit

Conference.

For non-long term care providers/suppliers, the SA must not provide a list of patients

interviewed, observed, or whose medical records were reviewed, and does not identify

specific patients whose cases are associated with specific deficiencies. (The

provider/supplier has the right to request a copy of any documentation the surveyors copy

to support deficiency findings; therefore the provider/supplier should have enough

information after the exit conference to begin corrective actions.)

The SA informs the provider/supplier that survey findings will be documented on Form

CMS 2567, which will be sent to the provider/supplier and subsequently will be made

available to the public under the disclosure of survey information provisions. For

deemed providers/suppliers, the SA informs the provider/supplier that the RO will be

consulted and (depending on RO practice), either the RO or the SA will inform the

facility of the results of the survey investigation via the Form CMS 2567.

The SA/RO sends to the provider/supplier a written report of the investigation findings as

a summary record of the investigation. At a minimum, this would include the Form CMS

2567 and applicable notices. For surveys of deemed providers/suppliers (not including

EMTALA surveys), the RO sends a copy of the written report to the applicable

accrediting organization(s), following the procedures specified in Section 5110. At the

RO’s or SA’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the accrediting organization via e-

mail.

(See Section 5300.5 for guidance on the exit conference for long term care facilities,

Section 5440.5 for EMTALA investigations, as well as the provider/supplier-specific

appendices of the SOM, and Appendix V of the SOM concerning EMTALA.)

NOTE: Sections 5300 to 5390 relate to nursing homes.

5100 - Investigation of Complaints for Deemed Providers/Suppliers

(Rev. 120, Issued: 09-19-14, Effective: 09-19-14, Implementation: 09-19-14)

Sections 5100 - 5130 apply to all deemed providers and suppliers, with the exception

of clinical laboratories subject to the Clinical Laboratory Improvement

Amendments of 1988 (CLIA). See Sections 5500 – 5590 for CLIA information,

including investigation of complaints related to accredited laboratories.

5100.1 - Basis for Investigation

(Rev. 120, Issued: 09-19-14, Effective: 09-19-14, Implementation: 09-19-14)

Sections 1864(c) and 1865 of the Social Security Act (the Act) provide the basis for

conducting substantial allegation validation – i.e., complaint investigation - surveys of

deemed providers/suppliers. Before the SA may conduct a complaint investigation

survey at a deemed provider/supplier, it must receive authorization to do so from the RO.

In accordance with 42 CFR 488.7, the RO may authorize a complaint investigation only

in response to a “substantial allegation” of noncompliance. A “substantial allegation of

noncompliance” is defined at 42 CFR 488.1 as a complaint from any of a variety of

sources, including complaints submitted in person, by telephone, through written

correspondence, or in news media articles, that, if substantiated, would have an impact on

the health and safety of patients, and that raises doubts as to a provider’s or supplier’s

compliance with any Medicare condition. In other words, the complaint, if verified and

uncorrected at the time of the survey, would result in a condition-level deficiency

citation. The SA survey conducted in response to a substantial allegation is one type of

validation survey.

NOTE: Deemed status is irrelevant for EMTALA complaints. Hospitals and CAHs may

not be deemed to be in compliance with EMTALA requirements at 42 CFR 489.24 and

the related requirements at 42 CFR 489.20, since these requirements are not part of an

approved Medicare hospital or CAH Medicare accreditation program. SAs must refer all

EMTALA-related allegations concerning a hospital or CAH to the RO, regardless of

whether the hospital or CAH is deemed or not. The provisions of Section 5100 do not

apply to EMTALA investigations.

The SA must notify the RO of all complaints/incidents it receives which, if substantiated,

would by their manner and degree suggest condition-level noncompliance. The RO

authorizes the SA to conduct a complaint investigation if it concurs that the nature of the

allegation, if it were true and uncorrected, suggests condition-level noncompliance. If the

RO does not concur that the allegation rises to this level, either the RO will change the

prioritization of the intake in ACTS to the appropriate level or it will instruct the SA to

do so. Regardless of who makes the change in ACTS, the RO instructs the SA to refer

the complainant to the applicable accrediting organization, following the procedures in

section 5100.2

The RO communicates its authorization to conduct a complaint investigation of the

deemed provider/supplier by completing the applicable Form CMS 2802 (See Exhibit 33)

in ACTS, indicating which Conditions of Participation or Conditions for Coverage or

Certification are to be investigated by the SA. Absent RO authorization, the SA may not

conduct a Federal complaint investigation of the deemed provider/supplier. The SA may

have authority under State law to conduct its own non-Federal investigation.

The RO completes the Form CMS 2802 in ACTS even if the SA received an initial verbal

authorization from the RO to initiate the complaint survey of a deemed provider/supplier.

Since ACTS allows the RO to authorize a complaint survey electronically it is not

necessary for the RO to send a signed hard copy of the Form CMS 2802 to the SA via fax

or U.S. Postal Service. Once the SA receives the authorization, it may begin its

complaint investigation of a deemed provider/supplier. Whether the survey is of one or

all Medicare conditions, it will be treated as a complaint survey under ACTS rather than a

re-certification survey, since the complaint/incident is the basis for the survey.

If the RO learns directly of a complaint/incident concerning a deemed provider/supplier,

it will review the complaint/incident to assign a priority consistent with Section 5075. If

the complaint/incident is found to be a substantial allegation of noncompliance,

prioritized for investigation as either immediate jeopardy or non-IJ high, the RO

authorizes the SA to conduct a complaint investigation or, in a limited number of cases,

the RO conducts the complaint investigation.

There may be occasions during the course of a State-only activity in a deemed

provider/supplier when State surveyors observe a situation they believe may constitute IJ

or other substantial noncompliance with a Medicare condition. In such circumstances,

the State must contact the RO by telephone or e-mail, explain the situation, and request

authorization to conduct a Federal complaint survey. CMS authorizes the investigation

as a complaint validation (i.e., substantial allegation validation) survey if it concurs that

there may be condition-level noncompliance. The complaint is entered into ACTS at the

earliest possible opportunity.

5100.2 – Initial Response to Complainant

(Rev. 120, Issued: 09-19-14, Effective: 09-19-14, Implementation: 09-19-14)

• If the SA concludes that a complaint represents a substantial allegation of

noncompliance (i.e., it is appropriately triaged as an IJ or non-IJ high), it requests

authorization in ACTS from the RO to conduct a survey. If the RO authorizes a

survey, the SA acknowledges receipt of the complaint by a letter to the complainant,

and advises that a SA investigation will be initiated. The acknowledgment letter also

advises that the complainant may also wish to file a complaint with the applicable

accrediting organization (AO), naming the AO and attaching a current list of AOs and

their contact information. This list may be found at:

https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Provider-Enrollment-and-

Certification/SurveyCertificationGenInfo/Downloads/Accrediting-Organization-

Complaint-Contacts.pdf

• If the SA concludes that a complaint does not represent a substantial allegation of

noncompliance (i.e., it is appropriately triaged as non-IJ medium or low) the SA

sends the complainant a letter indicating that the complaint does not meet the criteria

for a Federal on-site investigation of an accredited health care facility. The letter also

advises the complainant which AO(s) accredit the provider/supplier for Medicare

participation purposes and provides the above AO contact information, should the

individual wish to pursue a complaint with the AO.

If the RO directly receives a complaint, it is responsible for sending the complainant a

letter which acknowledges the receipt of the complaint and advises the complainant in the

same manner as indicated above for complaints received by the SA.

5110 - Post-Survey Procedures

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

5110.1 - Substantial Compliance

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

If a condition-level deficiency is not cited at a survey, the provider/supplier is in

substantial compliance with the Federal requirements. The SA certifies its survey

findings in ACTS within 30 calendar days after the completion of the survey. A Form

CMS 2567 is prepared in all cases. Even if no deficiencies were cited, the Form CMS

2567 is issued with a statement that a survey was conducted to evaluate compliance with

the listed requirements identified on the CMS-2802 and that no deficiencies were

identified in these areas.

The RO randomly selects several Form CMS 2567s with standard-level deficiencies for

review to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding of substantial compliance.

• For all cases not selected for review of the Form CMS 2567, the RO completes

the processing in ACTS of the complaint investigation Form CMS 562 and other

applicable items in ACTS, and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA or

RO uploads the complaint survey package into CASPER, the CMS National

Reporting System.

• For cases selected for review of the Form CMS 2567:

• If the RO concurs with the finding, the RO completes the processing in

ACTS of the complaint investigation Form CMS 562 and other applicable

items in ACTS, and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO

uploads the complaint survey package into CASPER, the CMS National

Reporting System.

• If the RO does not concur with the SA’s findings of substantial

compliance, the RO discusses with the SA any revisions needed on the

Form CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are made, follows the procedures

for a survey finding substantial noncompliance. (See Section 5110.2 or

5110.3, as applicable.)

The RO either issues a notice, or authorizes the SA in ACTS to issue the

provider/supplier a notice of its compliance status. The RO or SA, as applicable, issues

this notice to the provider/supplier, along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567containing

the survey findings. The notice indicates that the provider/supplier was found to be in

substantial compliance even though there may, or may not, also be standard-level

deficiencies cited. In such circumstances, the provider/supplier is not required to submit

a plan of correction for any cited standard-level deficiencies, but may choose to do so

because the Form CMS 2567 is available to the public. The SA and RO do not review

any plan of correction the provider/supplier submits; no revisit survey is conducted. The

RO promptly sends a copy of the notice letter and Form CMS 2567 to the applicable

AO(s). At the RO’s or SA’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via e-mail.

5110.2 - Condition-Level, IJ

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

1. IJ Removed while the SA is On-site

If deficiencies pose an IJ and the IJ is removed while the SA is on-site, deficiency

citations are made at the condition-level. Follow the procedure for condition-level

noncompliance, non-IJ, in Section 5110.3 below.

Note: The Form CMS 2567 must state at the beginning that an IJ was cited, regardless of

the fact that it was removed while the SA was on-site. An entry in ASPEN/ACTS must

also be made by the RO indicating that there was an IJ citation before the survey can be

uploaded to the national database, the CMS National Reporting System (CASPER). The

ASPEN/ACTS systems will prompt the RO whenever a survey includes condition-level

deficiencies to indicate whether there was also an IJ.

Details of the IJ situation and the actions taken by the provider/supplier to remove the IJ

must also be documented on the Form CMS 2567. Even though the IJ was removed

while the SA was on-site, the provider or supplier must still be cited for condition-level

noncompliance for the applicable Condition of Participation, Condition for Coverage, or

Condition for Certification that is cited for non-compliance related to the IJ. The

documentation must also include the date the surveyors verified that the IJ was removed

prior to completion of the survey.

2. IJ not Removed while the SA is On-site

If condition-level deficiencies pose an IJ and the IJ is not removed while the SA is on-

site, the SA certifies its findings in ACTS within 2 working days after the completion of

the survey.

If the RO concurs with the SA’s findings, the deemed provider/supplier is placed on a 23

calendar-day termination track. The RO sends the provider/supplier the Form CMS

2567, notifies the provider/supplier of the proposed termination action and effective date,

which is 23 calendar days after the date of the RO’s notice, and requests submission of an

acceptable plan of correction to the RO within 5 calendar days of the notice. The

provider/supplier is advised it will be surveyed after receipt of an acceptable plan of

correction and prior to the termination date. The notice also contains a statement that

“removes” the “deemed status” of the provider/supplier and places it under SA

jurisdiction.

The RO sends a copy of the notice to the SA and a copy of the notice and Form CMS

2567 to the applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the

AO via e-mail.

Note: Although deemed status technically has been removed and the provider/supplier is

placed under SA jurisdiction, because it is expected that deemed status will be restored

once corrections are made and verified, no change is made in ASPEN to the

provider’s/supplier’s deemed status. However, periods during which the

provider/supplier is under SA jurisdiction are entered and tracked in ASPEN. Further,

the AO may also conduct a survey of the facility, so long as it continues to accredit the

provider/supplier under its approved Medicare accreditation program.

When the RO receives a timely and acceptable plan of correction from the

provider/supplier, it directs the SA to conduct either a full survey or an IJ follow-up

survey, which is a focused, revisit-type survey, before the scheduled termination date in

order to confirm that the IJ has been removed and that the provider/supplier is in

substantial compliance. See Section 5110.3 for a discussion of factors the RO should

consider when deciding whether a full survey is needed. If the RO authorizes a full

survey, see Section 5110.4 for procedures to follow, except that the full survey must be

conducted prior to the 23-day termination date.

i. No Acceptable Plan of Correction Submitted

No revisit is necessary if the provider/supplier fails to submit a timely and

acceptable plan of correction. CMS will proceed to terminate a provider/supplier

if it does not submit a timely and acceptable POC. See SOM Section 3254F. The

public notice must be published 15 calendar days prior to the termination date.

The RO notifies the applicable Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) via

the Form CMS 2007 of the termination of the provider/supplier’s Medicare

agreement, including the effective date of the termination.

The RO completes the processing in ACTS of the complaint investigation Form

CMS 562 and other applicable items in ACTS and then, depending on RO

practice, either the SA or RO uploads the complaint survey package into

CASPER, the CMS National Reporting System.

The RO sends a copy of the termination letter to the applicable AO(s). At the

RO’s discretion, the copy may be sent to the AO via e-mail.

ii. Post-IJ First Revisit: IJ Not Removed

At least 5 calendar days in advance of the scheduled termination date, the SA

certifies to the RO in ACTs its findings, based on on-site verification, that the IJ

has not been removed, and recommends that the termination action proceed.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s

recommendation, the RO completes the processing in ACTS of the complaint

investigation Form CMS 562 and other applicable items in ACTS and then,

depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO uploads the complaint survey

package into the CMS National Reporting System (CASPER). The termination of

the provider’s/supplier’s Medicare agreement is processed in ASPEN.

The RO sends the provider/supplier a final termination letter and publishes a

public notice, in accordance with the termination process in Section 3010B. The

provider/supplier is terminated from the Medicare program. The RO notifies the

applicable Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) via the Form CMS 2007

of the termination of the provider/supplier’s Medicare agreement, including the

effective date of the termination.

The RO sends a copy of the termination notice and the Form CMS 2567 to the

applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via

e-mail.

iii. Post-IJ First Revisit: IJ Removed, Substantial Compliance

The termination action is rescinded if the IJ has been removed and substantial

compliance has been achieved prior to the effective date of the termination, i.e.,

there are no condition-level deficiencies identified during the follow-up survey by

the SA. The SA certifies its findings to the RO via ACTS at least 5 calendar days

in advance of the scheduled termination date, and recommends that the

termination action be rescinded.

The RO randomly selects several Form CMS 2567s with standard-level

deficiencies for review, to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding of

substantial compliance. If the RO concurs, and in all other cases where the Form

CMS 2567 is not reviewed by the RO, the RO completes the processing in ACTS

of the complaint investigation Form CMS 562 and other applicable items in

ACTS, and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO uploads the

complaint survey package into CASPER, the CMS National Reporting System. If

the RO does not concur with the SA’s finding, the RO discusses with the SA any

revisions needed on the Form CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are made,

follows the procedures for substantial noncompliance.

When substantial compliance is achieved, the RO either issues a notice, or

authorizes the SA in ACTS to issue the provider/supplier a notice of its

compliance status, restoring its deemed status. The RO or SA, as applicable,

issues this notice to the provider/supplier, along with a copy of the Form CMS

2567 containing the survey findings.

In addition, the RO sends a copy of the notice letter to the applicable AO(s). At

the RO’s discretion, the copy may be sent to the AO via e-mail.

Although the follow-up survey found the provider/supplier to be in substantial

compliance, it may have resulted in citation(s) of standard-level deficiencies of

the Form CMS 2567. Because deemed status has been restored, the

provider/supplier is not obligated to submit a plan of correction to the SA, nor are

any further revisits conducted. The provider/supplier may voluntarily choose to

submit a plan of correction because the Form CMS 2567 will be made available to

the public. The SA and RO do not review any plan of correction the

provider/supplier submits; no further revisit survey is conducted.

iv. Post-IJ First Revisit: IJ Removed, Substantial Noncompliance Remains

If the IJ has been removed but substantial noncompliance (i.e., condition-level

deficiencies), remain, the SA certifies its findings to the RO in ACTS within 10

working days after the survey completion date. The SA certifies that the IJ has

been removed and recommends rescission of the 23 calendar-day IJ termination

action, but continuation of the termination action on a 90 calendar-day

termination track.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s

recommendation, the RO gives the provider/supplier up to 67 additional calendar

days, or a total of 90 calendar days (23 plus 67) to achieve substantial compliance.

The resulting revised termination date is 90 calendar days after the date of the

RO’s original 23-day notice. The RO sends the CMS Form 2567 from the follow-

up survey to the provider/supplier with notice of the new termination date, and

requests that an acceptable POC be provided to the SA within 10 calendar days of

the notice.

Post-IJ Second Revisit: The SA conducts the second revisit survey by the 60th

calendar day after the date of the RO’s original 23-day termination notice. Unlike the

post-IJ first revisit survey, advance authorization from the RO is not required.

(i) Post-IJ Second Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Compliance

The termination action is rescinded if substantial compliance (i.e., no

condition-level deficiencies) is achieved and documented through the onsite

verification at the revisit survey. There may or may not be standard-level

deficiencies cited. Within 10 working days after the completion of the revisit

survey, the SA certifies to the RO its findings via ACTS and recommends that

the termination action be rescinded.

The RO randomly selects some Form CMS 2567s with only standard-level

deficiencies for review, to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding

of substantial compliance. If the RO concurs, and in all other cases where the

Form CMS 2567 is not reviewed by the RO, the RO completes the processing

in ACTS of the complaint investigation Form CMS 562 and other applicable

items in ACTS and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA or the RO

uploads the complaint survey package into CASPER, the CMS National

Reporting System. If the RO does not concur, the RO discusses with the SA

revisions needed on the Form CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are made,

follows the procedures for substantial noncompliance.

The RO either issues a notice, or authorizes the SA in ACTS to issue a notice

to the provider/supplier of its compliance status and that its deemed status is

restored. The RO or SA, as applicable, issues this notice to the

provider/supplier, along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567 with the survey

findings.

The RO sends a copy of the notice and Form CMS 2567 to the applicable

AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via e-

mail.

i. Post-IJ Second Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Noncompliance

If the second revisit shows that the provider/supplier fails to demonstrate

substantial compliance (i.e., condition-level deficiencies are identified through

on-site verification by the SA), the SA certifies to the RO its findings within

10 calendar days after the survey completion date, and recommends that the

termination action proceed.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s

recommendation, the RO sends the provider/supplier a final termination letter

and publishes a public notice 15 calendar days prior to the termination date.

The provider/supplier is terminated from the Medicare program. The RO

notifies the applicable Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) via the

Form CMS 2007 of the termination of the provider/supplier’s Medicare

agreement, including the effective date of the termination.

The RO completes the processing in ACTS of the complaint investigation

Form CMS 562 and other applicable items in ACTS and then, depending on

RO practice, either the SA or RO uploads the complaint survey package into

CASPER. The provider’s or supplier’s Medicare agreement is terminated in

ASPEN.

The RO sends a copy of the final termination notice and Form CMS 2567 to

the applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the

AO via e-mail.

5110.3 - Condition-Level, Non-IJ

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

If the provider/supplier fails to demonstrate substantial compliance, i.e., condition-level

deficiencies are identified by the SA, but they do not pose an IJ, the SA certifies its

findings to the RO via ACTS within 10 working days after the survey completion date.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s recommendation, the

RO either places the deemed provider/supplier on a 90 calendar-day termination track or

it requires a full survey after a complaint survey.

In determining whether to exercise its discretion to require a full survey for deemed

providers and suppliers, the RO may consider factors including, but not limited to, the

following:

• The manner and degree of noncompliance identified as a result of the complaint

investigation;

• The provider’s/supplier’s compliance history;

• Recent changes in the provider’s/supplier’s ownership or management;

• The length of time since the provider’s/supplier’s last accreditation survey;

• The availability of SA resources at the time required to conduct a full survey;

and/or

• The advantages associated with conducting a more extensive survey compared to

the advantages associated with the faster enforcement (and thus a faster potential

corrective action) that result when proceeding directly to enforcement action after

the complaint survey.

Paragraph a) below discusses the procedures when the RO does not require a full

survey after the complaint survey; paragraph b) discusses the procedures to follow

when the RO directs the SA to conduct a full survey.

a) No full survey – proceed directly to termination track based on the complaint

survey

If the RO places the deemed provider/supplier on a 90 calendar-day termination track

as a result of the complaint investigation, it sends the provider/supplier the Form

CMS 2567, notifies the provider/supplier of the proposed termination action and

effective date, which will be 90 calendar days after the date of the RO’s notice. The

RO requests submission of an acceptable plan of correction to the SA within 10

calendar days. The notice also contains a statement that “removes” the “deemed

status” of the provider/supplier and places it under SA jurisdiction.

The RO sends a copy of the notice to the SA and a copy of the notice and Form CMS

2567 to the applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to

the AO via e-mail.

NOTE: Although deemed status has technically been “removed” and the

provider/supplier is placed under SA jurisdiction, because it is expected that deemed

status will be restored once corrections are made and verified, no change is made in

ASPEN to the provider’s/supplier’s deemed status. However, periods during which

the provider/supplier is under SA jurisdiction are entered and tracked in ASPEN.

Further, the AO may also conduct a survey of the facility so long as it continues to

accredit the provider/supplier.

The SA conducts a complaint survey revisit after the SA has received a timely and

acceptable plan of correction, but no later than the 45th calendar day after the notice

to the provider/supplier.

1) No Timely, Acceptable Plan of Correction Submitted

If the provider/supplier fails to submit a timely and acceptable plan of correction

to the SA and as a result the SA is unable to conduct a timely revisit before the

termination date, the SA notifies the RO and the RO may proceed with

termination. See SOM Section 3254F. The RO publishes a public notice 15 days

prior to the termination date. The RO notifies the applicable Medicare

Administrative Contractor (MAC) via the Form CMS 2007 of the termination of

the provider/supplier’s Medicare agreement, including the effective date of the

termination.

The RO approves the complaint investigation Form CMS 562 and other

applicable items in ACTS and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA or

RO uploads the complaint survey package into the CMS National Reporting

System (CASPER). The provider’s or supplier’s Medicare agreement is

terminated in ASPEN.

Additionally, the RO sends a copy of the notice of termination letter to the

applicable AO(s).

2) First Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Compliance

The termination action is rescinded if substantial compliance (i.e., no condition-

level deficiencies) is achieved and documented through the onsite verification at

the first revisit survey. There may or may not be standard-level deficiencies cited.

Within 10 working days after the completion of the revisit survey, the SA certifies

to the RO in ACTS its findings and recommends that the termination action be

rescinded.

The RO randomly selects several Form CMS 2567s with standard-level

deficiencies for review to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding of

substantial compliance.

• For all cases not selected for review of the Form CMS 2567, the RO

completes the processing in ACTS of the complaint investigation Form CMS

562 and other applicable items in ACTS, and then, depending on RO practice,

either the SA or RO uploads the complaint survey package into CASPER, the

CMS National Reporting System.

• For cases selected for review of the Form CMS 2567:

• If the RO concurs with the finding, the RO completes the processing in

ACTS of the complaint investigation Form CMS 562 and other

applicable items in ACTS, and then, depending on RO practice, either

the SA or RO uploads the complaint survey package into CASPER,

the CMS National Reporting System.

• If the RO does not concur with the SA’s findings of substantial

compliance, the RO discusses with the SA any revisions needed on the

Form CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are made, follows the

procedures for a survey finding substantial noncompliance. (See

Section 5110.2 or 5110.3, as applicable.)

The RO either issues a notice, or authorizes the SA in ACTS to issue a notice to

the provider/supplier of its compliance status and that its deemed status is

restored. The RO or SA, as applicable, issues this notice to the provider/supplier,

along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567 with the survey findings.

The RO sends a copy of the notice and Form CMS 2567 to the applicable AO(s).

At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via e-mail.

3) First Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Noncompliance

If the SA finds during the first revisit survey that the provider/supplier is not in

substantial compliance with one or more Medicare conditions, the SA consults

with the RO on its findings and whether to conduct a second revisit. If the RO

agrees that condition-level deficiencies remain, the RO considers whether the

survey findings warrant a second revisit or proceeding immediately to

termination. Generally the RO authorizes a second revisit, but the RO has

discretion to make an exception, based on the facts of the situation. For example,

if the SA and RO determine that an immediate jeopardy was present during the

first revisit, the RO might find it prudent to proceed to termination without a

second revisit.

If the RO agrees that condition-level deficiencies remain and does not authorize a

second revisit, the RO and SA follow the procedures outlined in paragraph 3ii.

below.

If a second revisit is authorized by the RO, the SA sends the provider/supplier the

Form CMS 2567 for the first revisit with notice that substantial noncompliance

remains, the 90-day termination date remains in effect, a new acceptable plan of

correction is required, and that an additional revisit will be conducted prior to the

termination date. The SA conducts the second revisit no later than 60 calendar

days after the date of the termination notice.

i. Second Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Compliance

If substantial compliance is achieved by the provider/supplier (i.e., no

condition-level deficiencies are identified through the on-site verification by

the SA), the SA certifies its findings to the RO via ACTS within 10 working

days after the survey completion date, and recommends that the termination

action be rescinded.

The RO randomly selects some Form CMS 2567s with only standard-level

deficiencies for review, to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding

of substantial compliance. If the RO concurs, and in all other cases where the

Form CMS 2567 is not reviewed by the RO, RO completes the processing in

ACTS of the complaint investigation Form CMS 562 and other applicable

items in ACTS and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO

uploads the complaint survey package into CASPER, the CMS National

Reporting System. If the RO does not concur, the RO discusses with the SA

revisions needed on the Form CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are made,

follows the procedures for substantial noncompliance.

The RO either issues a notice, or authorizes the SA in ACTS to issue the

provider/supplier a notice letter of its compliance status and that its deemed

status is restored. The RO or SA, as applicable, forwards this notice to the

provider/supplier, along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567 with the survey

findings.

Additionally, the RO sends a copy of the notice and the Form CMS 2567 to

the applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the

AO via e-mail.

ii. Second Revisit Survey Findings – Substantial Noncompliance

If the second revisit survey shows that the provider/supplier fails to

demonstrate substantial compliance (i.e., condition-level deficiencies are

identified through on-site verification by the SA), the SA certifies its findings

to the RO via ACTS within 10 calendar days after the survey completion date,

and recommends that the termination action proceed.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s

recommendation, the RO sends the provider/supplier a final termination letter

and publishes a public notice at least 15 calendar days prior to the termination

date, consistent with the requirements of Section 3012. The provider/supplier

is terminated from the Medicare program. The RO notifies the applicable

Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) via the Form CMS 2007 of the

termination of the provider/supplier’s Medicare agreement, including the

effective date of the termination.

The RO completes the processing in ACTS of the complaint investigation

Form CMS 562 and other applicable items in ACTS and then, depending on

RO practice, either the SA or RO uploads the complaint survey package into

CASPER, the CMS National Reporting System. The provider’s or supplier’s

Medicare agreement is terminated in ASPEN.

Additionally, the RO sends a copy of the termination notice and the Form

CMS 2567 to the applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may

be sent to the AO via e-mail.

b) Full Survey After the Complaint Survey

If the RO directs the SA to conduct a full survey following the complaint survey, it

sends the Form CMS 2567 for the complaint survey to the provider/supplier in

addition to a notice letter indicating that it is “removing” the provider’s/supplier’s

deemed status and that a full survey will be conducted on an unannounced basis.

The provider/supplier is not required to submit a plan of correction in response to the

complaint survey findings, but may choose to do so.

The RO completes the processing in ACTS of the complaint investigation Form CMS

562 and other applicable items in ACTS and then, depending on RO practice, either

the SA or RO uploads the complaint survey package into CASPER, the CMS

National Reporting System.

Additionally, the RO sends a copy of the notice letter and Form CMS 2567 for the

complaint survey to the applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may

be sent to the AO via e-mail.

NOTE: Although deemed status technically has been removed and the

provider/supplier is placed under SA jurisdiction, because it is expected that deemed

status will be restored once corrections are made and verified, no change is made in

ASPEN to the provider’s/supplier’s deemed status. However, periods during which

the provider/supplier is under SA jurisdiction are entered and tracked in ASPEN.

Further, the AO may also conduct a survey of the facility so long as, since it

continues to accredit the provider/supplier.

The full survey must be conducted within 60 calendar days after the RO’s notice

to the provider/supplier of the complaint survey results and removal of deemed

status. The RO and SA follow the procedures in Section 5110.4.

5110.4 - Full Survey after Complaint Survey with Condition-level

Deficiencies, When Authorized by the RO

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

If the RO authorizes the SA to conduct a full survey after the complaint survey, the

timeframes and procedures described in this section apply.

Timeframe

The full survey must be conducted within:

• 23 days after the RO’s notice to the provider/supplier, if the complaint survey

involved an IJ that was not removed while the survey team was on-site; or

• 60 calendar days after the RO’s notice to the provider/supplier in all other cases.

Procedures following the full survey with findings of:

a) Full Survey Findings: Substantial Compliance

If the SA full survey finds the deemed provider or supplier to be in substantial

compliance, the SA and RO follow the same procedures and timeline as at Section

5110.1. In addition, since the RO had removed deemed status, the RO either issues a

notice, or authorizes the SA to issue a notice to the provider or supplier of its compliance

status and that its deemed status is restored, along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567

with the survey findings.

The RO sends a copy of the notice and Form CMS 2567 to the applicable AO(s). At the

RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via e-mail.

b) Full Survey Findings: Condition-Level, IJ

1. IJ Removed while the SA is On-site

If deficiencies pose an IJ and the IJ is removed while the SA is on-site, deficiency

citations are made at the condition-level. Follow the procedure for condition-

level noncompliance, non-IJ, in Section 5110.4c below.

Note: The Form CMS 2567 must state at the beginning that an IJ was cited,

regardless of the fact that it was removed while the SA was on-site. An entry in

ASPEN must also be made by the RO indicating that there was an IJ citation

before the survey can be uploaded to the national database, the CMS National

Reporting System (CASPER). The ASPEN systems will prompt the RO

whenever a survey includes condition-level deficiencies to indicate whether there

was also an IJ.

Details of the IJ situation and the actions taken by the provider/supplier to remove

the IJ must also be documented on the Form CMS 2567. Even though the IJ was

removed while the SA was on-site, the provider or supplier must still be cited for

condition-level noncompliance for the applicable Condition of Participation or

Condition for Coverage that is cited for non-compliance related to the IJ. The

documentation must also include the date the surveyors verified that the IJ was

removed prior to completion of the survey.

2. IJ not Removed while the SA is On-site

If condition-level deficiencies pose an IJ and the IJ is not removed while the SA is

on-site, the SA certifies its findings to the RO within 2 working days after the

completion of the survey.

If the RO concurs with the SA’s findings, the deemed provider/supplier is placed

on a 23 calendar-day termination track. The RO sends the provider/supplier the

Form CMS 2567, notifies the provider/supplier of the proposed termination action

and effective date, which is 23 calendar days after the date of the RO’s notice, and

requests submission of an acceptable plan of correction to the RO within 5

calendar days of the notice.

The RO sends a copy of the notice to the SA and a copy of the notice and Form

CMS 2567 to the applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be

sent to the AO via e-mail.

When the RO receives a timely and acceptable plan of correction from the

provider/supplier, it directs the SA to conduct an IJ follow-up survey before the

rescheduled termination date in order to confirm that the IJ has been removed and

that the provider/supplier complies with the conditions previously cited for

noncompliance.

2.1 First Revisit after Full Survey with IJ

i. No Acceptable Plan of Correction Submitted

No revisit is necessary if the provider/supplier fails to submit a timely and

acceptable plan of correction. CMS will proceed to terminate a provider/supplier

if it does not submit a timely and acceptable POC. See SOM Section 3254F. The

public notice must be published 15 calendar days prior to the termination date.

The RO notifies the applicable Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) via

the Form CMS 2007 of the termination of the provider/supplier’s Medicare

agreement, including the effective date of the termination.

The SA and RO complete the processing in ASPEN of the survey kit and then,

depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO uploads the complaint survey

package into CASPER, the CMS National Reporting System.

The RO sends a copy of the termination letter to the applicable AO(s). At the

RO’s discretion, the copy may be sent to the AO via e-mail.

ii. First Revisit Survey Findings: IJ Not Removed

At least 5 calendar days in advance of the scheduled termination date, the SA

certifies to the RO its findings, based on on-site verification, that the IJ has not

been removed, and recommends that the termination action proceed.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s

recommendation, the SA and RO complete the processing of the survey kit in

ASPEN and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO uploads the

survey package into the CMS National Reporting System (CASPER). The

termination of the provider’s/supplier’s Medicare agreement is processed in

ASPEN.

The RO sends the provider/supplier a final termination letter and publishes a

public notice, in accordance with the termination process in Section 3010B. The

provider or supplier is terminated from the Medicare program. The RO notifies

the applicable Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) via the Form CMS

2007 of the termination of the provider/supplier’s Medicare agreement, including

the effective date of the termination.

The RO sends a copy of the termination notice and the Form CMS 2567 to the

applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via

e-mail.

iii. First Revisit Survey Findings: IJ Removed, Substantial Compliance

The termination action is rescinded if the IJ has been removed and substantial

compliance has been achieved prior to the effective date of the termination, i.e.,

there are no condition-level deficiencies identified during the first revisit survey

by the SA. The SA certifies its findings to the RO at least 5 calendar days in

advance of the scheduled termination date, and recommends that the termination

action be rescinded.

The RO randomly selects several Form CMS 2567s with standard-level

deficiencies for review, to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding of

substantial compliance. If the RO concurs, and in all other cases where the Form

CMS 2567 is not reviewed by the RO, depending on RO practice, either the SA or

RO uploads the survey package into CASPER, the CMS National Reporting

System. If the RO does not concur with the SA’s finding, the RO discusses with

the SA any revisions needed on the Form CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are

made, follows the procedures for substantial noncompliance.

When substantial compliance is achieved, the RO either issues a notice, or

authorizes the SA to issue the provider/supplier a notice of its compliance status,

restoring its deemed status, along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567containing

the survey findings.

In addition, the RO sends a copy of the notice letter to the applicable AO(s). At

the RO’s discretion, the copy may be sent to the AO via e-mail.

Although the revisit survey found the provider/supplier to be in substantial

compliance, it may have resulted in citation(s) of standard-level deficiencies of

the Form CMS 2567. Because deemed status has been restored, the provider or

supplier is not obligated to submit a plan of correction to the SA, nor are any

further revisits conducted. The provider or supplier may voluntarily choose to

submit a plan of correction because the Form CMS 2567 will be made available to

the public. The SA and RO do not review any plan of correction the

provider/supplier submits; no further revisit survey is conducted.

iv. First Revisit Survey Findings: IJ Removed, Substantial Noncompliance

Remains

If the IJ has been removed but substantial noncompliance (i.e., condition-level

deficiencies), remains, the SA certifies its findings to the RO within 10 working

days after the survey completion date. If the RO concurs that the IJ has been

removed but that condition-level deficiencies remain, the RO considers whether

the survey findings warrant a second revisit or proceeding immediately to

termination. At this point the provider/supplier will have been surveyed three

times, including the preceding complaint survey, with continued substantial

noncompliance found in each survey and at least one IJ. Generally the RO

authorizes a second revisit, but the RO has discretion to make an exception, based

on the facts of the case, including the risks to patients associated with the

remaining deficiencies versus providing the provider/supplier further opportunity

to correct its problems in a timely manner.

If the RO does not authorize a second revisit, it follows the procedures in

paragraph ii above.

If the authorizes a second revisit, the RO gives the provider/supplier up to 67

additional calendar days, or a total of 90 calendar days (23 plus 67) from the date

of the notice of the IJ, to achieve substantial compliance. The resulting revised

termination date is 90 calendar days after the date of the RO’s original 23-day

termination notice. The RO provides the provider/supplier the Form CMS 2567

for the revisit with notice of the new termination date, and requests that an

acceptable POC be provided to the SA within 10 calendar days of the notice.

2.2 Second Revisit after Full Survey with IJ

The SA conducts the second revisit survey no later than 60 calendar days after the date of

the RO’s 23-day termination notice to the provider or supplier.

i. Second Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Compliance

If substantial compliance is achieved by the provider/supplier (i.e., no condition-

level deficiencies are identified through the on-site verification by the SA) during

the second revisit survey, the SA certifies its findings to the RO within 10

working days after the survey completion date, and recommends that the

termination action be rescinded.

The RO randomly selects some Form CMS 2567s with standard-level deficiencies

for review, to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding of substantial

compliance. If the RO concurs, and in all other cases where the Form CMS 2567

is not reviewed by the RO, depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO

uploads the survey kit into CASPER, the CMS National Reporting System. If the

RO does not concur, the RO discusses with the SA revisions needed on the Form

CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are made, follows the procedures for

substantial noncompliance.

The RO also either issues a notice, or authorizes the SA to issue the

provider/supplier a notice, of its compliance status and that its deemed status is

restored, along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567 with the survey findings.

Additionally, the RO sends a copy of the notice and the Form CMS 2567 to the

applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via

e-mail.

ii. Second Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Noncompliance

If the second revisit shows that substantial noncompliance (i.e., condition-level

deficiencies) remain, the SA certifies to the RO its findings within 10 calendar

days after the survey completion date, and recommends that the termination

action proceed.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s

recommendation, the RO sends the provider or supplier a final termination letter

and publishes a public notice 15 calendar days prior to the termination date. The

provider or supplier is terminated from the Medicare program. The RO notifies

the applicable Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) via the Form CMS

2007 of the termination of the provider/supplier’s Medicare agreement, including

the effective date of the termination.

The SA and RO complete the processing in ASPEN of the survey kit and,

depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO uploads the survey package into

CASPER. The provider’s or supplier’s Medicare agreement is terminated in

ASPEN.

The RO sends a copy of the final termination notice and Form CMS 2567 to the

applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via

e-mail.

c) Full Survey Findings: Condition-Level, Non-IJ

If the results of the full survey indicate there is substantial noncompliance (i.e., condition-

level deficiencies), but the deficiencies do not constitute an IJ, the SA certifies its

findings to the RO within 10 working days after the survey completion date.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s recommendation, the

RO places the provider or supplier on a 90 calendar-day termination track as a result of

the full survey. The RO sends the provider or supplier the Form CMS 2567 and notifies

it of the proposed termination action and effective date, which will be 90 calendar days

after the date of the RO’s notice. The RO requests submission of an acceptable plan of

correction to the SA within 10 calendar days of the notice.

Additionally, the RO sends a copy of the notice of termination letter to the applicable

AO(s).

1. First Revisit: The SA conducts the first revisit survey no later than the 45th calendar

day after the date of the RO’s termination notice to the provider or supplier.

i. First Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Compliance

The termination action is rescinded if substantial compliance (i.e., no condition-

level deficiencies) is achieved and documented through the onsite verification at

the revisit survey. There may or may not be standard-level deficiencies cited.

Within 10 working days after the completion of the revisit survey, the SA certifies

to the RO its findings and recommends that the termination action be rescinded.

The RO randomly selects some Form CMS 2567s with only standard-level

deficiencies for review, to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding of

substantial compliance. If the RO concurs, and in all other cases where the Form

CMS 2567 is not reviewed by the RO, the RO completes the processing of the

survey kit in ASPEN and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA or the

RO uploads the survey package into CASPER, the CMS National Reporting

System. If the RO does not concur, the RO discusses with the SA revisions

needed on the Form CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are made, follows the

procedures for substantial noncompliance.

The RO either issues a notice, or authorizes the SA to issue a notice to the

provider or supplier of its compliance status and that its deemed status is restored,

along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567 with the survey findings.

The RO sends a copy of the notice and Form CMS 2567 to the applicable AO(s).

At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via e-mail.

ii. First Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Noncompliance

If the SA confirms during the first revisit survey that the provider/supplier is not

in substantial compliance with one or more Medicare conditions, the SA consults

with the RO on its findings and whether to conduct a second revisit. If the RO

concurs that condition-level deficiencies remain, the RO considers whether the

survey findings warrant a second revisit or proceeding immediately to

termination. At this point the provider/supplier will have been surveyed three

times, including the complaint survey, the full survey and the first revisit, with

substantial noncompliance found on each survey. Generally the RO authorizes a

second revisit, but the RO has discretion to make an exception, based on the facts

of the case, including the risks to patients associated with the remaining

deficiencies versus providing the provider/supplier further opportunity to correct

its problems in a timely manner.

If the RO does not authorize a second revisit, the RO and SA will follow the

procedures outlined in paragraph 2(ii). below.

If the RO authorizes a second revisit, the SA sends the provider/supplier the Form

CMS 2567 for the first revisit with notice that substantial noncompliance remains,

the 90-day termination date remains in effect, a new acceptable plan of correction

is required, and that an additional revisit will be conducted prior to the

termination date.

2. Second Revisit: The SA conducts the second revisit survey no later than 60 calendar

days after the date of the termination notice to the provider or supplier.

(i) Second Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Compliance

If substantial compliance is achieved by the provider/supplier (i.e., no

condition-level deficiencies are identified through the on-site verification by

the SA) during the second revisit survey, the SA certifies its findings to the

RO within 10 working days after the survey completion date, and

recommends that the termination action be rescinded.

The RO randomly selects some Form CMS 2567s with standard-level

deficiencies for review, to determine if the RO concurs with the SA’s finding

of substantial compliance. If the RO concurs, and in all other cases where the

Form CMS 2567 is not reviewed by the RO, the RO completes the processing

in ASPEN of the survey kit and then, depending on RO practice, either the SA

or RO uploads the complaint and revisit surveys into CASPER, the CMS

National Reporting System. If the RO does not concur, the RO discusses with

the SA revisions needed on the Form CMS 2567 and, after the revisions are

made, follows the procedures for substantial noncompliance.

The RO also either issues a notice, or authorizes the SA in ACTS to issue the

provider or supplier a notice, of its compliance status and that its deemed

status is restored, along with a copy of the Form CMS 2567 with the survey

findings.

Additionally, the RO sends a copy of the notice and the Form CMS 2567 to

the applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the

AO via e-mail.

(ii) Second Revisit Survey Findings: Substantial Noncompliance

If the second revisit shows that the provider or supplier has substantial

noncompliance (i.e., condition-level deficiencies are identified through on-site

verification by the SA), the SA certifies to the RO its findings within 10

calendar days after the survey completion date, and recommends that the

termination action proceed.

The RO reviews the SA’s findings, and if it concurs with the SA’s

recommendation, the RO sends the provider/supplier a final termination letter

and publishes a public notice 15 calendar days prior to the termination date.

The provider or supplier is terminated from the Medicare program. The RO

notifies the applicable Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) via the

Form CMS 2007 of the termination of the provider/supplier’s Medicare

agreement, including the effective date of the termination.

The RO completes the processing in ASPEN of the survey kit and then,

depending on RO practice, either the SA or RO uploads the survey package

into CASPER. The provider’s or supplier’s Medicare agreement is terminated

in ASPEN.

The RO sends a copy of the final termination notice and Form CMS 2567 to the

applicable AO(s). At the RO’s discretion, the materials may be sent to the AO via e-

mail.

5120 - Life Safety Code Guidance for Deemed Providers/Suppliers

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

In most States, an engineer or other fire safety specialist surveys for compliance with the

Life Safety Code (LSC) standard and others survey the remaining standards in the

Physical Environment Condition. If the allegation pertains only to LSC requirements, it

is not necessary to survey the remainder of the Physical Environment Medicare

condition.

5130 – Deemed Provider/ Supplier Refusal of Complaint Investigation

Surveys

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

The SA informs the provider/supplier that refusal to allow a complaint investigation

survey is a basis for termination and exclusion from the Medicare program, in accordance

with Section 1128(b)(12) of the Social Security Act. The SA notifies the RO

immediately of a refusal to allow a complaint investigation survey.

5140 - Complaints Involving HIV-Infected Individuals

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

As direct recipients of Federal funds, providers and suppliers are subject to provisions of

Section 504 of the Federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973. Symptomatic and asymptomatic

individuals who are infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), or “AIDS

virus,” are protected by the Rehabilitation Act as “individuals with handicaps.”

Therefore, HIV-infected individuals who are provided services, are employed, or are to

be employed by providers and suppliers in Federally-conducted or financed programs or

activities would be treated like anyone else in the workforce, so long as these individuals

do not, on a case-by-case basis, pose a substantial health and safety risk to others, or pose

a performance problem, and are “otherwise qualified.”

A provider participating in the Medicare or Medicaid programs cannot discriminate

against individuals who are HIV-infected so long as these individuals do not, on a case-

by-case basis, pose a substantial health and safety risk to others and so long as the

provider provides comparable services and care to non HIV-infected individuals.

The SA or the RO refers discrimination complaints to the Office of Civil Rights (OCR),

which is the authority to determine whether Medicare or Medicaid providers and

suppliers comply with this non-discrimination statute.

5150 - Investigating Complaints Involving ESRD Services Provided by

Deemed Hospitals or CAHs

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

Many of the hospitals or CAHs participating in the ESRD program are deemed to meet

the Medicare Conditions of Participation on the basis of their accreditation by a CMS-

approved Medicare accreditation program. “Deemed status” applies only to the

hospital’s or CAH’s approval as a provider, not to its status as a supplier of ESRD

transplantation or dialysis services. The SA investigates all complaints and allegations

related solely to ESRD services since ESRD services fall outside the purview of

accreditation.

5160 - Investigating Complaints Against ESRD Suppliers

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

1. General

Refer to the guidance for investigation of complaints against non-deemed providers and

suppliers. See SOM §5200.

The ESRD Networks are required to have a complaint /grievance resolution system.

Networks (NW) and the SA are frequently contacted by the same complainant with the

same or similar allegations. If the allegations require an onsite investigation or allege

potential risk to patient health or safety, the SA is responsible for the investigation. If the

allegations are primarily focused on relationship or communication issues, the NW may

assume primary responsibility for the investigation. If the focus of the allegations is a

medical practice issue, the SA and NW may need to collaborate on the investigation. The

NWs and SA are encouraged to communicate and collaborate to reduce or prevent

redundant investigations.

2. Conducting the ESRD Investigation

The SA surveyors must use the ESRD survey protocol in Appendix H to investigate

complaints. The allegations of the complaint will determine the tasks needed. For

example, an allegation of inadequate patient care staffing would require use of the

following tasks, at a minimum:

• Pre survey activities;

• Entrance Conference: Provide an overview of the complaint allegations and the

planned agenda for your survey time;

• Tour and observations;

• Patient interviews;

• Staff interviews;

• Record reviews;

• Review of quality management materials; and

• Exit conference.

Conduct each of the identified survey tasks in Appendix H, “Guidance to Surveyors:

End-Stage Renal Disease Facilities.”

3. Pre-survey Task for ESRD Complaint Investigations

Review the allegations of the complaint to identify needed survey tasks. Review the

State Outcomes List and the Dialysis Facility Report to determine if there are data

outliers related to the allegations. For example, if the complaint alleges staff members do

not wash their hands, the surveyor should review the facility’s rate of hospitalization and

hospitalizations related to septicemia, and consider this information in the survey process.

To facilitate meeting the requirement of surveying each ESRD facility every 3 years, the

SA evaluates all available information (outcome list rank, Dialysis Facility Report, time

since last survey, complaint history, NW information, etc.) to determine whether a

recertification survey should be conducted at the time of the complaint investigation.

5170 – Hospital Restraints/Seclusion Death Reporting and Investigation

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

This section applies to both deemed and non-deemed hospitals, as well as to deemed and

non-deemed CAH distinct part psychiatric and rehabilitation units.

5170.1 - Background

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

The Medicare hospital restraint and seclusion requirements are found under the Patients’

Rights provisions at 42 CFR 482.13(e),(f) and (g).

Hospitals are required to report a death associated with the use of restraint/seclusion to

their CMS RO in accordance with 42 CFR 482.13(g)(1).

The interpretive guidelines found in the Hospital Appendix A at 42 CFR

482.13(e) – (g) discuss in detail what is considered a restraint or seclusion, the

requirements governing hospital use of restraint or seclusion, and these reporting

requirements.

5170.2 - Responsibilities

(Rev. 88, Issued: 08-27-13, Effective: 07-19-13, Implementation: 7-19-13)

Regional Offices (ROs)

The RO receives Hospital Restraint/Seclusion Death Reports which hospitals are required

to submit in accordance with 42 CFR 482.13(g)(1). The RO is responsible for

communicating with hospitals in its region whether the required reports are to be

submitted electronically by facsimile and/or e-mail, providing appropriate addresses or

fax numbers, or whether it will also accept mail submissions.

The RO is also responsible for data entry of reports received into the Automated Survey

Processing Environment (ASPEN) Complaint Tracking System (ACTS) Hospital

Restraint/Seclusion Death Module and for maintenance in ACTS of information related

to disclosures to Protection and Advocacy Agencies. (See Process discussion below.)

Each RO designates one contact person and a backup person who serves as the hospital

point of contact regarding reporting, and who is responsible for coordinating the review

of reports received, and authorization of complaint surveys when appropriate.

State Agencies (SAs)

Hospitals report patient deaths associated with restraint or seclusion to their CMS RO,

not to the SA. Any hospital patient restraint or seclusion death report received by a SA

directly from a hospital (or other source) must be forwarded immediately by the SA to its

RO.

The SA conducts a complaint investigation related to a patient death associated with a

hospital’s use of restraints or seclusion only when the RO authorizes the investigation.

The investigation must be completed no later than five working days after RO

authorization.

SAs assist ROs in educating the hospitals in their State about their obligation to report to

their RO any death that meets the reporting requirements found at 42 CFR 482.13(g)(1).

Upon request, SAs are to provide hospitals with the applicable RO contact information,

as well as the hospital reporting procedures contained in this policy.

The SAs respond to requests from Protection and Advocacy (P&A)

organizations, or any other parties, for information on survey findings related to

specific cases identified by the requestor. The SAs handle these requests in

accordance with standard CMS policy on disclosure of Federal survey

information.

5170.3 - Process

(Rev. 191, Issued: 07-19-19, Effective: 07-19-19, Implementation: 07-19-19)

The RO evaluates the information required to be reported by the hospital or CAH DPU

under 42 CFR 482.13(g)(1) to determine whether the situation might involve a violation

of 42 CFR 482.13(e) through 42 CFR 482.13(g) and authorizes an on-site investigation if

there appears to be a possible violation.

Using the information provided by the hospital or CAH DPU in the worksheet, the RO

evaluates whether the case warrants an on-site investigation. If the RO determines that

the restraint/seclusion death report requires on-site investigation, within two business

days of receiving the report, the RO enters the reported information into the ACTS

restraint/seclusion module and immediately notifies the SA to authorize a complaint

survey to investigate the hospital’s or CAH DPU’s compliance with the Patient’s Rights

requirement at 42 CFR 482.13(e), (f), and (g), including the reported case. The SA

accesses the ACTS restraint/seclusion module to see the information reported by the

hospital or CAH DPU prior to conducting the on-site investigation. The SA is expected

to be onsite to initiate the investigation within two business days of receipt of survey

authorization from the RO.

Notice to Protection and Advocacy Organizations

At the same time that the RO notifies the SA that it authorizes the on-site survey,

consistent with the ACTS Notice of a Modified or Altered System of Records (SOR) (71

FR 29643, May 23, 2006, SOR 09-70-0565), the RO also provides written notification,

by mail or email, to the appropriate Protection and Advocacy Organization (P&A) within

the State where the hospital is located, only if the P&A has a current Data Use

Agreement (DUA) with CMS. The RO may contact CMS Central Office for a list of

P&A’s with current DUAs. The names and addresses for each State’s P&A can be

located at the following website, at the drop down menu entitled “Get Help in Your

State:” www.ndrn.org . Notification is provided only in those cases for which an on-

site survey is authorized.

The RO provides the following information to the P&A: hospital or CAH DPU name,

hospital or CAH DPU address, name of the deceased, and a copy of the

restraint/seclusion death report submitted by the hospital or CAH DPU. An entry must

be made on the intake in ACTS indicating the name of the P&A to which the

restraint/seclusion death report data was sent and the date it was sent.

The P&A must have an approved CMS Data Use Agreement (DUA), Form CMS-R-

0235, (Exhibit 292) in place before restraint/seclusion death report data may be disclosed

to it. In order to get an approved DUA, the P&A must complete and submit a signed

CMS DUA, Form CMS-R-0235, including an initialed DUA ACTS SOR- P&A

Attachment (Exhibit 293) to the Director, Division of Information Security and Privacy

Management (DISPM), Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, Mailstop N2-04-27,

7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244-1850. DISPM will review the DUA,

assign a unique DUA identifier and expiration date to it, and return a signed copy to the

P&A, including an expiration date. CMS Central Office Survey and Certification will

maintain and make available to ROs a list of P&As with DUAs.

When completing the Form, P&As must note the following in particular:

• Line 5 of the DUA must state “Restraint/Seclusion Hospital Death Reports.” The

“Years” and “System of Record” columns should be left blank;

• Line 12 must state “CMS DUA: ACTS SOR Attachment – P&A;”

• The DUA must be signed by the P&A official whom the P&A designates as

“Custodian,” i.e., the individual who will have actual possession of and

responsibility for the data released under the DUA; and

• A P&A may designate more than one Custodian, but if it does so, each individual

must complete and sign a Multi-Signature Addendum Form (Exhibit 294).

When approved, the DUA will have an expiration date. DISPM will alert an organization

with a DUA of its upcoming expiration date and will give the organization the option of

requesting a one-year DUA extension via e-mail, or to close the DUA with a DUA

destruction certificate. DISPM has set up a DUA resource email box which accepts all

expired DUA resolution requests at [email protected].

Custodians may be added or deleted over the life of the primary DUA. To add a new

Custodian under an existing DUA, the P&A must submit the following to CMS/DISPM:

a letter from the P&A describing the activities planned for the new Custodian and the

length of time over which the Custodian will serve, and a Multi-Signature Addendum

signed by the appropriate official from the P&A. The Multi-Signature Addendum must

show the DUA number of the existing primary P&A DUA. The P&A must assign a case

number to all Multi-Signature Addendums beginning with “1” and adding consecutively

thereafter. CMS/DISMP will use this number to track the number of Custodians in each

P&A. When a P&A seeks to delete an existing Custodian, it must send the CMS/DISPM

a letter to this effect. CMS/DISPM will strike out the name of the deleted Custodian

from the DUA or Multi-Signature Addendum that added that Custodian, dating and

initialing the deletion.

The DUA process described in this section applies to disclosure of hospital and CAH

DPU restraint/seclusion death reports by CMS to P&As in those cases where the P&A

did not first make a request specific to an identified patient; a DUA is not required for

other disclosures of information in ACTS to a P&A when permitted in accordance with

the ACTS System of Records Notice.

• A P&A may request information about an on-site survey by submitting its request

to the SA. The SA will process this request and release information to the P&A in

accordance with standard CMS policy for disclosure of Form CMS 2567,

Statement of Deficiencies and Plan of Correction.

If the P&A identifies a particular patient, hospital, and approximate date or dates when

the patient was in that hospital or CAH DPU, and if the P&A makes a request for

additional information, beyond the Form CMS 2567, related to use of restraint or

seclusion on that patient, the request is forwarded to the RO. The RO may, in accordance

with the ACTS System of Records Notice, release additional information to the P&A.

NOTE: Sections 5200 to 5240 relate to all non-deemed

provider/supplier types, excluding nursing homes (SNFs/NFs).

5200 - Investigating Complaints for Non-Deemed Providers/Suppliers,

Excluding Nursing Homes (SNFs/NFs)

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

5200.1 - General Procedures

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

For complaint surveys on non-deemed providers/suppliers, the SA uses the appropriate

survey protocol and interpretive guidelines. A focus survey is conducted on the specific

regulatory requirements related to the allegation. Based on an initial assessment or other

observations, if significant problems are identified, the SA expands the scope of review

as necessary to determine compliance or noncompliance. The SA does not refer

complaints regarding non-deemed providers/suppliers to the RO.

If deficiencies are cited, the SA documents the deficiencies on Form CMS-2567 and

obtains an acceptable POC. If non-compliance with the Medicare conditions is identified,

the SA will follow the appropriate termination procedures and document and report as

required. (See SOM Chapter 3, §§3010-3028 for termination procedures.)

5200.2 - Special Procedures for Psychiatric Hospitals

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The special conditions for psychiatric hospitals cannot be deemed to meet the Medicare

requirements. The remaining conditions for hospitals apply to psychiatric hospitals, and

a hospital may be deemed to meet those conditions.

When the SA receives a complaint allegation against a psychiatric hospital under the

general conditions of participation, it must determine whether or not the hospital is

deemed. If the hospital is deemed, the SA follows the appropriate survey protocol for

deemed facilities. If the hospital is not deemed, the SA investigates the complaint if

appropriate under these procedures listed above in §5200.1.

If the complaint allegation concerns the special conditions for psychiatric hospitals, the

SA may conduct an investigation if it has appropriate qualified personnel or refer it to the

RO. If the complaint is referred to the RO, the RO will evaluate and refer it to the CO as

required.

5210- Processing of Complaints Originating with or Investigated by the

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO establishes procedures and clear organizational accountability to ensure that

complaints are properly evaluated, documented, acknowledged, and handled timely and

appropriately. The RO uses ACTS to ensure timely and appropriate action on all

allegations originating with or investigated by the RO. The extent and nature of the RO

involvement with a given complaint varies depending on the nature of the allegation and

the receiving organization.

Most complaints originate through the SA and are recorded and controlled by the SA.

When a complaint is filed directly with the RO, the RO assumes those initial SA

responsibilities.

5220- Investigation Conducted Directly by the RO

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

This less frequent class of complaints includes allegations retained by the RO or

forwarded to the RO by the SA for investigation. The RO’s responsibilities vary based

on the type of complaint.

The RO uses the appropriate survey protocol and interpretive guidelines for the

provider/supplier. These procedures apply when a direct RO investigation is conducted,

such as for Federal facilities, Religious Non-Medical Health Care Institutions (RNHCIs),

or special situations. When directly investigating, the RO begins by ensuring that it or

the SA has met all initial data collection and acknowledgement requirements.

If the allegation involves an IJ, the RO investigates within two working days. Otherwise,

the RO schedules the investigation based on the severity of the allegation. (See §5075.9

for time frames related to Federal onsite investigations.)

5230 - Special RO Processing

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The following types of allegations are subject to special RO handling:

1. Over-Utilization or Inappropriate Utilization of Services- The RO refers to the

local QIO for investigation, and documents the provider’s files as for other

allegations. The RO acts, as necessary, on any findings returned by the QIO;

2. Civil Rights Violations- The RO refers to the regional OCR for investigation.

The RO documents the provider’s files as for other allegations. The RO acts as

necessary on any findings returned by OCR; and

3. Medicare/Medicaid/CLIA fraud- The RO refers to the RO of the Inspector

General/DHHS for investigation. The RO documents the provider’s files as for

other allegations.

In each of the above instances, the RO ensures that the complainant and SA are notified

of any findings.

5240 - Complaints - HHA Hotline

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Each State has a Medicare home health hotline that can be called by patients who are

dissatisfied with the home health services they are receiving or by other individuals with

a complaint about a specific HHA. Under the Medicare COPs for Patient Rights at 42

CFR 484.10, HHAs are required to provide their patients with the hotline number for

their state. Concerns about an HHA not complying with the COPs, or reports that an

HHA is misinforming beneficiaries or inappropriately terminating care for patients, can

be referred to the SA for investigation via the home health hotline. Concerned consumers

may also call the SA directly. A violation of the COPs or the provider agreement could

lead to termination of the HHA from the Medicare program.

As part of the patient rights COPs, the HHA is required to investigate complaints made

by a patient or the patient’s family or guardian regarding treatment or care that is, or fails

to be, furnished, and to document both the existence of the complaint and resolution of

the complaint.

Surveyors, as part of their investigation of the HHA’s compliance of the COPs, may ask

to review complaints received by the HHA and the resolution of these complaints. The

HHA must permit examination of these records by or on behalf of CMS, or risk

termination from the Medicare program.

NOTE: Sections 5300 to 5390 relate to nursing homes.

5300 - Investigation of Complaints for Nursing Homes

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Section 42 CFR 488.332 provides the Federal regulatory basis for the investigation of

complaints about nursing homes.

The survey agency must review all complaint allegations and conduct a standard or an

abbreviated standard survey to investigate complaints of violations of requirements if its

review of the allegation concludes that:

• A deficiency in one or more of the requirements may have occurred; and

• Only a survey can determine whether a deficiency or deficiencies exist.

The survey agency does not conduct a survey if the complaint raises issues that are

outside the purview of Federal participation requirements.

Complaint investigations follow, as appropriate, the pertinent survey tasks, and

information gathered is recorded on the appropriate survey worksheets. However, if the

documentation required is minimal, use Form CMS-807 to record information during the

complaint investigation. Record deficiencies on Form CMS-2567 and/or, the “Statement

of Isolated Deficiencies Which Cause No Harm with Only a Potential for Minimal Harm

for SNFs and NFs” . The completed Form CMS-2567 must be made a part of the

complaint record.

If necessary, a specialized team may be used to investigate complaints. Team members

may include, but are not limited to, an attorney, auditor, and appropriate health

professionals. The specialized team is not necessarily composed of qualified surveyors.

However, specialized team members provide unique talents and expertise that assist at

least one qualified surveyor in identifying, gathering, and preserving documented

evidence. Further information regarding the composition of the survey team is provided

in Chapter 7.

The timing, scope, duration and conduct of a complaint investigation are at the discretion

of the SA, except when a determination is made that immediate jeopardy may be present

and ongoing or a higher level of actual harm may be present. If the complaint concerns

conditions on a certain day (e.g., on weekends), or on a certain shift (e.g., 11 p.m. - 7

a.m.), the SA should make an attempt to investigate it at the relevant time. In most cases,

the following tasks, or portion of tasks, should be performed during a complaint

investigation.

5300.1 - Task 1: Offsite Survey Preparation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Review any information about the facility that would be helpful to know in planning the

investigation. Contact the ombudsman to discuss the nature of the complaint and whether

there have been any similar complaints reported to and substantiated by the ombudsman.

Review the related regulatory requirements or standards that pertain to the complaint.

For example, if it is a complaint about abuse, review the requirements at 42 CFR 483.13.

Plan the investigation. Before going to the nursing home, plan what information to

obtain during the complaint investigation based on the information already acquired.

Consider practical methods to obtain that information.

5300.2 - Task 2: Entrance Conference/Onsite Preparatory Activities

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Onsite complaint investigations should always be unannounced. Upon entrance, advise

the facility’s Administrator of the general purpose of the visit. The SA explains the

reason for the survey and avoids any impression that a predetermination has been made

as to the validity of the allegation. It is important to let the facility know why you are

there, but protect the confidentiality of those involved in the complaint. Do not release

information that will cause opportunities to be lost for pertinent observations, interviews,

and record reviews required for a thorough investigation. For example, if the complaint

is that food that is intended to be served hot is always served cold, do not tell the facility

the exact complaint. Rather, tell them it is a situation related to dietary requirements.

5300.3 - Task 5: Information Gathering

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The order and manner in which information is gathered depends on the type of complaint

that is being investigated. Conduct comprehensive, focused, and/or closed record

reviews as appropriate for the type of complaint. Generally, it is not necessary to review

records and information from more than one year ago. However, the SA is not precluded

from doing so if concerns identified during the investigation indicate it is necessary in

order to determine current compliance. It is very important to remember that the

determination of whether the complaint happened is not enough. The surveyor needs to

determine noncompliant facility practices related to the complaint situation and which, if

any, requirements are not met by the facility.

Perform information gathering in order of priorities, i.e., obtain the most critical

information first. Based on this critical information about the incident, determine what

other information to obtain in the investigation.

Observations, record review and interviews can be done in any order necessary. As

information is obtained, use what has been learned to determine what needs to be

clarified or verified as the investigation continues.

Observe the physical environment, situations, procedures, patterns of care, delivery of

services to residents, and interactions related to the complaint. Also, if necessary,

observe other residents with the same care need. After determining what occurred, i.e.,

what happened to the resident and the outcome, investigate what facility practice(s) or

procedures affected the occurrence of the incident.

EXAMPLE

It was verified through the investigation that a resident developed a pressure sore/ulcer

which progressed to a Stage IV, became infected and resulted in the resident requiring

hospitalization for aggressive antibiotic therapy. Observe as appropriate: dressing

changes, especially to any other residents with Stage III or IV pressure sores; infection

control techniques such as hand washing, linen handling, and care of residents with

infections; care given to prevent development of pressure sores (e.g., turning and

repositioning, use of specialized bedding when appropriate, treatments done when

ordered, keeping residents dry, and provision of adequate nutritional support for wound

healing).

Record Review: If a specific resident is involved, focus on the condition of the resident

before and after the incident. If there are care issues, determine whether the appropriate

assessments, care planning, implementation of care, and evaluations of the outcome of

care have been done as specified by the regulatory requirements.

EXAMPLE

For a complaint of verbal and physical abuse, review the record to determine the

resident’s mood and demeanor before and after the alleged abuse. Determine if there are

any other reasons for the change in the resident’s demeanor and behavior. Determine

whether an assessment has been done to determine the reason for the change in mood and

behavior. Does the record document any unexplained bruises and/or complaints of pain,

and whether they occurred in relation to the alleged incident?

Interviews: Interview the person who made the complaint. If the complainant is not at

the facility at the time of the survey, he/she should be interviewed by telephone, if

possible. Also, interview the person the complaint is about. Then, interview any other

witnesses or staff involved. In order to maintain the confidentiality of witnesses, change

the order of interviews if necessary. It may not always be desirable to interview the

person who made the complaint first, as that may identify the person as the complainant

to the facility. Interview residents with similar care needs at their convenience.

As interviews proceed, prepare outlines needed for other identified witnesses and revise

outlines as new information is obtained.

During information gathering to investigate a complaint about the care and services

provided to residents in a nursing home, findings of past noncompliance may be

identified. Before considering a citation of past noncompliance with a specific regulatory

tag, surveyors must determine if current compliance with the specific regulatory tag

exists. Similar to verifying correction of current noncompliance on a revisit, surveyors

should use a variety of methods to determine whether correction of the past

noncompliance occurred and continues. This may include, but is not limited to, the

following:

• Interviews with facility staff, such as the administrator, nursing staff, social

services staff, medical director, quality assessment and assurance committee

members, and/or other facility staff, as indicated, to determine what procedures,

systems, structures, and processes have been changed.

• Reviewing through observation, interview and record review, how the facility

identified and implemented interventions to address the noncompliance.

Examples of interventions may include, but are not limited to:

o The facility’s review, revision, or development of policies and/or

procedures to address the areas of concerns;

o The provision and use of new equipment, as necessary;

o The provision of staff training required to assure ongoing compliance for

the implementation and use of new and/or revised policies, procedures,

and/or equipment, especially with new and/or temporary staff;

o The provision of additional staffing, changes in assignments or

deployment of staff, as needed; and

o The provision of a monitoring mechanism to assure that the changes made

are being supervised, evaluated, and reinforced by responsible facility

staff.

• Evaluating whether the facility has a functioning quality assessment and

assurance committee whose responsibilities include the identification of quality

issues; providing timely response to ascertain the cause; implementing corrective

action; implementing monitoring mechanisms in place to assure continued

correction and revision of approaches, as necessary, to eliminate the potential risk

of occurrence to other residents and to assure continued compliance.

A citation of past noncompliance must meet all of the criteria described in Task 6 below.

5300.4 - Task 6: Information Analysis

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Review all information collected. If there are inconsistencies, do additional data

collection as needed, to resolve the inconsistencies. Determine if there is any other

information still needed.

Determine whether:

• The allegations are substantiated or unsubstantiated;

• The facility failed to meet any of the regulatory requirements; and

• The facility practice or procedure that contributed to the complaint has been

changed to achieve and/or maintain compliance.

To cite past noncompliance with a specific survey data tag (F-tag or K-tag), all of the

following three criteria must be met:

1) The facility was not in compliance with the specific regulatory requirement(s) (as

referenced by the specific F-tag or K-tag) at the time the situation occurred;

2) The noncompliance occurred after the exit date of the last standard recertification

survey and before the survey (standard, complaint, or revisit) currently being

conducted; and

3) There is sufficient evidence that the facility corrected the noncompliance and is

in substantial compliance at the time of the current survey for the specific

regulatory requirement(s), as referenced by the specific F-tag or K-tag.

A nursing home does not provide a plan of correction for a deficiency cited as past

noncompliance as the deficiency is already corrected; however, the survey team

documents the facility’s corrective actions on Form CMS-2567.

5300.5 - Task 7: Exit Conference

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

Conduct an Exit Conference related to a complaint survey in accordance with the process

described in the Exit Conference section located in the Long-Term Care Survey Process

(LTCSP) Procedure Guide (https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Provider-Enrollment-and-

Certification/GuidanceforLawsAndRegulations/Nursing-Homes.html). Do not inform the

nursing facility of confidential information unless the individual who provided the

information specifically authorizes you to do so.

If a deficiency is not present now, but was present and has been corrected, notify the

facility orally and in writing that the complaint was substantiated because deficiencies

existed at the time that the complaint situation occurred. (See SOM Chapter 7, Survey

and Enforcement Process for Skilled Nursing Facilities and Nursing Facilities, for

specific information about citing past noncompliance.)

If the complaint is unsubstantiated, (i.e., the surveyor(s) cannot determine that it occurred

and there is no indication of deficient practice), notify the facility of this decision.

5310 - Action on Allegations of Resident Neglect and Abuse, and

Misappropriation of Resident Property for Nursing Homes

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

5310.1 - Written Procedures

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

The State must develop and implement written procedures for the timely review and

investigation of allegations of resident abuse and neglect, and misappropriation of

resident property, including both complaints and facility-reported incidents. The State’s

policies and procedures must be consistent with Federal requirements as well as with

procedures in the State Operations Manual.

Nursing homes send the following types of incidents to the State Survey Agency:

• All alleged violations involving abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment,

including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident property;

• The results of all facility investigations involving alleged violations of abuse,

neglect, exploitation or mistreatment, including injuries of unknown source and

misappropriation of resident property; and

• Reasonable suspicions of crimes against nursing home residents.

NOTE: If the SA receives information that a suspected crime may have

occurred in a facility and there is indication that it has not been reported or

the SA cannot verify that a report was made to law enforcement, then the SA

forwards the information from the initial report immediately to law

enforcement. The SA must follow applicable laws and regulations related to

information disclosures, privacy and confidentiality, as it makes referrals.

The SA may also contact the CMS Location office for more information.

A. Initial Reporting of Facility-Reported Incidents

The information collected during intake is critical in determining what may be

occurring in a facility and the effect(s) that it may have on residents. While

States have discretion in how they collect information from facilities (e.g.,

through electronic submission), at a minimum, the State Survey Agency must

provide instructions to the facility and collect sufficient information to

determine how the incident should be prioritized. See also Exhibit XX for

sample instructions with examples of information and Appendix PP, Tag

F609. If the facility has not provided sufficient information, the SA should take

this into consideration as it triages the incident.

1. Facility Reported Incidents – Initial Report

The facility must provide in its report sufficient information to describe the

alleged violation and indicate how residents are being protected [See

§483.12(c)(3)]. It is important that the facility provide as much

information as possible, to the best of its knowledge at the time of

submission of the report, so that state agencies can initiate action

necessary to oversee the protection of nursing home residents. See Exhibit

XX for a sample form for initial reporting with examples of information

and see also Appendix PP, Tag F609.

B. Reporting of Investigation Findings for Facility-Reported

Incidents

For alleged violations of abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment,

including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident

property, the facility is required to submit a report of the results of the

investigation within 5 working days to the State Survey Agency (See 42 C.F.R.

§483.12(c)(4), Tag F609 of Appendix PP of the State Operations Manual).

While States have discretion in how they collect information from facilities

(e.g., through electronic submission), at a minimum, the State Survey Agency

must provide instructions to the facility and collect sufficient information to

determine how the incident should be prioritized.

5-Day Final Report of Suspected Allegation

Within 5 working days of the incident, the facility must provide in its report

sufficient information to describe the results of the investigation, and indicate

any corrective actions taken, if the allegation was verified. It is important that

the facility provide as much information as possible, to the best of its

knowledge at the time of submission of the report, so that State agencies can

initiate action necessary to oversee the protection of nursing home residents

[see §483.12(c)(4)]. See Exhibit XX for a sample form for the investigation

report with examples of information, and see also Appendix PP, Tag F609.

5310.2 - Review and Triage of Allegations

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

The State reviews all allegations of resident neglect and abuse and misappropriation of

resident property regardless of the source.

5310.2A-Immediate Jeopardy Priority

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

In cases where the initial report indicates the following, the SA must initiate an onsite

survey within three business days of receipt of the initial report:

1) The alleged noncompliance may have caused, or may likely cause, serious injury,

harm, impairment, or death to a resident, and

2) The facility has not implemented adequate protection for all residents or the SA

has not received sufficient evidence to conclude that residents are adequately

protected.

For these cases, the SA will enter into ACTS: Intake Type=Incident; Priority = IJ; and

Investigate Within X Days = 3 Working Days.

In cases where the initial report indicates the following, the SA must initiate an onsite

survey within seven business days of receipt of the initial report:

1) The alleged noncompliance may have caused, or may likely cause, serious injury,

harm, impairment, or death to a resident, and

2) The facility has potentially implemented adequate protection for all residents.

For these cases, the SA will enter into ACTS: Intake Type=Incident; Priority = IJ; and

Investigate Within X Days = 7 Working Days.

NOTE: See Appendix Q of the State Operations Manual for guidance related to

immediate jeopardy situations.

Investigating nursing home facility-reported incidents according to these timeframes will

be implemented no later than October 1, 2023, to provide time for the SAs to prepare

given the resource constraints in the SAs.

Depending on the nature of the allegation, the facility would be expected to take

immediate action(s) to ensure the protection of residents. Information provided by the

facility may assist the SAs in determining whether there are potentially adequate

protections provided to the resident. Examples of such information include, but are not

limited to:

• Monitoring of the alleged victim and other identified residents who are at risk,

such as conducting unannounced management visits at different times and shifts;

• Evaluation of whether the alleged victim feels safe and if he/she does not feel

safe, taking immediate steps to alleviate the fear, such as a room relocation,

increased supervision, etc.;

• Providing social services (e.g., emotional support and counseling) to the

resident, as needed;

• Immediate assessment of the alleged victim and provision of medical treatment

as necessary;

• Provision of goods and/or services that are necessary to avoid serious injury,

harm, impairment, or death to a resident;

• Immediate notification of the alleged victim’s physician and the resident

representative, when there is injury or a change in condition or status;

• If the alleged perpetrator is staff- Removal of access by the alleged perpetrator

to the alleged victim and other residents and assurance that ongoing safety and

protection is provided for the alleged victim and other residents

• If the alleged perpetrator is a resident or visitor- Removal of access by the

alleged perpetrator to the alleged victim and, as appropriate, other residents and

assurance that ongoing safety and protection is provided for the alleged victim

and other residents

• Notification of the alleged violation to other agencies or law enforcement

authorities, within timeframes as specified under Federal or State law or

regulations; and

• Whether administrative staff, including the administrator, were informed and

involved as necessary in the investigation.

Below are examples that indicate that a resident(s) may not be protected in the facility:

• The alleged perpetrator continues to have access to the alleged victim and/or

other residents;

• Retaliation occurs against a resident who reports an alleged violation;

• A resident who repeatedly fondles other residents is moved to another unit,

where he/she continues to exhibit the same behaviors to other residents; and

• A resident with a history of striking a resident is left unsupervised with a resident

who has been targeted in the past.

The SA may contact the resident/representative to determine whether adequate

protections are provided to the resident

5310.3 - Investigating Allegations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If there is reason to believe, either through oral or written evidence, that an individual

used by a facility to provide services to residents could have abused or neglected a

resident or misappropriated a resident's property, the State must investigate the allegation.

During the investigation, the SA should evaluate how the facility developed policies and

procedures to prevent the abuse, and after the abuse occurred, how the facility took action

to report and investigate the allegations while ensuring the safety of the residents.

5310.4 - Factors Beyond the Control of the Individual

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The State must not make a finding that an individual neglected a resident if the individual

demonstrates that such neglect was caused by factors beyond the control of the

individual.

EXAMPLE: A nurse aide could not be found negligent for not providing clean bed and

bath linens to a resident if the facility had no clean bed and bath linens available.

However, the facility is responsible for providing clean bed and bath linens to residents.

5320 – Reporting Findings of Abuse, Neglect, or Misappropriation of

Property to the Nurse Aide Registry

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

5320.1 - Notification Procedures - Preliminary Determinations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If the State makes a preliminary determination, based on oral or written evidence and its

investigation, that resident neglect, abuse, or misappropriation of property has occurred,

the State completes the following notification procedures:

1. Individuals Notified - The State notifies the following individuals in writing

within 10 working days of the investigation:

a. Individual(s) implicated in the investigation; and

b. The current administrator of the facility in which the incident occurred.

2. Notice Information - The following information is included in the notice:

a. Nature of the allegation (specific facts);

b. Date and time of the occurrence;

c. A statement that the individual implicated in the investigation has a right to a

hearing and must request the hearing within 30 days from the date of the

notice. Provide the individual with the specific information needed to request

a hearing, such as the name and address of a contact in the State to request a

hearing;

d. Statement that if the individual fails to request a hearing, in writing, within 30

days from the date of the notice, the presumed substantiated findings is

reported to the nurse aide registry or the appropriate licensure authority;

e. The intent to report findings substantiated by a hearing in writing to the nurse

aide registry and/or to the appropriate licensure authority;

f. Consequences of waiving the right to a hearing;

g. Consequences of a finding through the hearing process that the resident abuse

or neglect, or misappropriation of property did occur; and

h. Right of the accused individual to be represented by an attorney at the

individual’s own expense.

5320.2 - Conduct of Hearing for Nurse Aides

1- Time frame to Complete the Hearing

The State must complete the hearing and the hearing record within 120 days from the day

it receives the request for a hearing.

2 - Hearing Location

The State must hold the hearing in a manner consistent with State practice at a reasonable

place and time convenient for the individual.

5320.3 - Reporting Findings

1 - Reporting to Entities

If the individual waives the right to a hearing or the time to request a hearing has expired,

or if the hearing finding is that the individual neglected or abused a resident or

misappropriated a resident’s property, the substantiated findings must be reported in

writing within 10 working days to:

a. The individual;

b. Current administrator of the facility in which the incident occurred;

c. The administrator of the facility that currently employs the individual, if it is not

the same facility in which the incident occurred;

d. Applicable licensing authorities; and

The nurse aide registry for nurse aides as specified in 42 CFR 483.156(c) and discussed

in §4141. Section 4141 discusses the function of the registry, the information contained

in the registry, and responsibility for the registry.

2 - Information Submitted to the Nurse Aide Registry

The following information must be included and remain in the registry permanently,

unless the finding was made in error, the individual was found not guilty in a court of

law, or the State is notified of the individual’s death. See §4141.B.

a. Documentation of the investigation, including the nature of the allegation and the

evidence that led to the conclusion that the allegation was valid;

b. The date of the hearing, if the individual chose to have one, and its outcome; and

c. A statement by the individual disputing the allegation if the individual chose to

make one.

3 - Information Retained in the Nurse Aide Registry Permanently

The registry must remove entries for individuals who have performed no nursing or

nursing-related services for 24 consecutive months, unless the individual’s registry entry

includes documented findings of abuse, neglect, or misappropriation of property.

5330 - Reporting Abuse to Law Enforcement and the Medicaid Fraud

Control Unit for Nursing Homes

(Rev. 212; Issued; 02-10-23; Effective: 10-21-22; Implementation: 10-24-22)

If the SA receives information that a suspected crime may have occurred in a facility and

there is indication that it has not been reported or the SA cannot verify that a report was

made to law enforcement, the SA must report the suspected crime to law enforcement

immediately.

Verifying that a complainant, facility, and/or covered individual(s) has made a report to

law enforcement would include review and confirmation of the following information:

• Who submitted the report to law enforcement, including name and contact

information;

• Who did the reporter contact, including law enforcement entity, name, and

contact information;

• Date/Time that the report was filed;

• Any copies of the report made to law enforcement, if available;

• What information was conveyed to law enforcement; and

• The police report number provided by law enforcement.

When the SA or RO substantiates a finding of abuse, the SA or RO must report the

substantiated findings to local law enforcement and, if appropriate, the Medicaid Fraud

Control Unit.

NOTE: “Covered individual” is defined in section 1150B(a)(3) of the Act as anyone who

is an owner, operator, employee, manager, agent or contractor of the facility

(§483.12(b)(5)(i)).

5340 - Post-Survey Certification Actions for Nursing Homes

(Rev. 155, Issued: 06-10-16, Effective: 06-10-16, Implementation: 06-10-16)

Following the investigation, the survey team records any findings on Form CMS-2567,

the SA conducts a supervisory review of the CMS-2567 form and sends the provider a

copy. The SA requests a POC for any uncorrected deficiencies. See §2728.

When Federal deficiencies are identified, the SA initiates certification actions as follows:

1. Noncompliance that Constitutes Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health

and Safety - The SA initiates procedures in accordance with §§7307 to 7309.

2. Noncompliance that Does Not Constitute Immediate Jeopardy to Resident

Health and Safety - The SA initiates procedures in accordance with §§7311 to

7316.

3. In Substantial Compliance - The SA initiates procedures in accordance with

§7319.

5350 – Data Entry

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The SA enters survey information into the ASPEN system (via ASPEN Central Office or

ACTS), including Forms CMS-670 and CMS-2567.

5360 - Processing of Complaints Originating with or Investigated by the

CMS RO

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO establishes procedures and clear organizational accountability to ensure that any

complaint is properly evaluated, documented, acknowledged, and handled timely and

appropriately. The RO uses ACTS to ensure timely and appropriated action on all

allegations originating with or investigated by the RO.

The extent and nature of RO involvement with a given complaint varies depending on the

nature of the allegation and the receiving organization. The following procedures address

the major variants of RO involvement.

5370 - Pre-Investigation Actions on Allegations Originating Through

the RO

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Most complaints originate through the SA and are recorded and controlled by the SA.

When a complaint is filed directly with the RO, however, the RO assumes those initial

SA responsibilities.

5380 - RO Processing of RO Investigated Complaints

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

This less frequent class of complaints includes allegations retained by the RO or

forwarded to the RO by the SA for investigation or special processing. The RO

responsibilities vary based on the type of complaint.

1 - Direct RO Investigation

These procedures apply when a direct RO investigation is conducted. When directly

investigating, the RO begins by ensuring that it or the SA has met all intake,

acknowledgment, and priority assignment requirements in §5010 to §5020.

2 - Conducting the Investigation

The RO follows the procedures for investigation in §5300.

3 – RO Certification Actions

When Federal deficiencies are identified, the RO initiates certification actions as follows:

a. Noncompliance that Constitutes Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health and

Safety - The RO initiates procedures in accordance with §§7307 to 7309. The RO

performs the SA responsibilities described in these sections.

b. Noncompliance that Does Not Constitute Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health

and Safety - The RO initiates procedures in accordance with §§7311 to 7316.

c. In Substantial Compliance - The RO initiates procedures in accordance with

§7319.

4 - Reporting

The RO should report survey information into the ASPEN system (via ASPEN Central

Office or ACTS), including Forms CMS-670 and CMS-2567.

5390 – RO Oversight of Complaint-Related Processes

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

1. The RO considers any complaint data in targeting look-behind surveys or reviews.

2. The RO monitors data in summary form - either through a log or data system. See

§5060.

These records should include:

• Identification of region or State-wide patterns;

• Pinpointing of problem providers or States;

• Evaluation of SA processing times, workloads, performance, etc.; and

• Identification of overall SA workloads, including unsubstantiated and Medicaid-

only complaint volumes.

3. Based on needs identified from oversight activities, the RO provides SA training and

technical assistance.

NOTE: Sections 5400 to 5480.2 relate to alleged EMTALA violations.

5400 - Investigations Involving Alleged Emergency Medical Treatment

and Labor Act (EMTALA) Violations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Section 1866 of the Act, Agreements with Providers of Services, specifies that for a

hospital, or any provider of services, to qualify for participation in the Medicare program,

it must enter into an agreement with the Secretary of HHS. Effective August 1, 1986,

participating hospitals with emergency departments must comply with the requirements

of §1867 of the Act as a condition of their provider agreement.

The following Medicare provider agreement requirements, which closely parallel

provisions contained in §1866of the Act, must be met by Medicare participating hospitals

with emergency departments:

• 42 CFR 489.20(l) requires a hospital to comply with the requirements of 42 CFR

489.24. Section 1866(a)(1)(I) of the Act requires a hospital to have and enforce

policies to ensure compliance with the requirements of §1867;

• 42 CFR 489.20(m) requires a hospital to report to CMS or the SA any time it has

reason to believe it may have received an individual who has been transferred in

an unstable emergency medical condition (EMC) from another hospital in

violation of the requirements of 42 CFR 489.24(e);

• 42 CFR 489.20(q) requires a hospital to post conspicuously a sign(s) specifying

the rights of individuals, under §1867 of the Act, with respect to examination and

treatment for emergency medical conditions and women in labor and to indicate

whether or not the hospital participates in the Medicaid program. The letters

within the signs must be clearly readable at a distance of at least 20 feet or the

expected vantage point of the emergency department clients. The wording of the

sign(s) must be clear and in simple terms and language(s) that are understandable

by the population served by the hospital;

• 42 CFR 489.20(r)(1) requires a hospital to maintain medical and other records

related to individuals transferred, including discharges, to or from the hospital for

a period of five years from the date of transfer;

• 42 CFR 489.20(r)(2) requires a hospital to maintain a list of physicians who are

on call to provide treatment necessary to stabilize an individual with an

emergency medical condition;

• 42 CFR 489.20(r)(3) requires a hospital to maintain a central log on each

individual who comes seeking assistance and whether he or she refused treatment,

was refused treatment, or whether the individual was transferred, admitted and

treated, stabilized and transferred, or discharged.

When hospitals do not conform to the requirements of §1867 of the Act, the practice is

commonly called “dumping.” A hospital with a dedicated emergency department is

defined in 42 CFR 489.24(b) as a hospital that offers services for emergency medical

conditions within its capacity to do so. The regulations at 42 CFR 489.24 parallel the

provisions of §1867 of the Act and contain the following requirements that a hospital

with a dedicated emergency department must meet:

• 42 CFR §489.24(a) General. Applicability of provisions of this section.

• 42 CFR §489.24(b) Definitions. As used in this section.

• 42 CFR §489.24(c) Use of dedicated emergency department for non-emergency

services.

• 42 CFR §489.24(d) Necessary stabilizing treatment for emergency medical

conditions.

• 42 CFR §489.24(d)(1) General. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (d)(2).

• 42 CFR §489.24(d)(2) Exception: Application to inpatients.

• 42 CFR §489.24(d)(3) Refusal to consent to treatment.

• 42 CFR §489.24(d)(4) Delay in examination or treatment.

• 42 CFR §489.24(d)(5) Refusal to consent to transfer.

• 42 CFR §489.24(e) Restricting transfer until the individual is stabilized.

• 42 CFR §489.24(e)(1) General.

• 42 CFR §489.24(e)(2) Appropriate transfer to another medical facility.

• 42 CFR §489.24(e)(3) Provides whistleblower protection to physicians and

qualified medical personnel.

• 42 CFR §489.24(f) Recipient hospital responsibilities.

• 42 CFR §489.24(g) Termination of provider agreement.

• 42 CFR §489.24(h) Consultation with Quality Improvement Organization (QIO).

• 42 CFR §489.24(i) Release of QIO Assessment.

• 42 CFR §489.24(j) Availability of on-call physicians.

• 42 CFR §489.24 (j)(1) On-call list.

• 42 CFR §489.24 (j)(2) Hospital on-call policy and procedures.

If a hospital fails to meet these requirements, CMS may terminate the provider agreement

in accordance with 42 CFR 489.53. The Office of the Inspector General (OIG) has the

responsibility and authority to assess civil monetary penalties (CMPs) or to exclude

physicians from the Medicare program when a hospital or physician violates these

requirements. Additionally, individuals suffering personal harm and medical facilities

suffering financial loss as a result of a violation of these provisions can bring civil action

against the offending hospital and physicians. Filing for such civil action is limited to a

period of 2 years after the date of the alleged violation. This legislation does not preempt

any State or local laws, except to the extent that State or local requirements directly

conflict with a requirement of this legislation.

5410 – EMTALA and Born-Alive Infants Protection Act of 2002

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

5410.1 - Interaction of the Born-Alive Infant Protection Act and

EMTALA

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

With the definition of the terms “person” and “individual” codified at 1 U.S.C. §8, it is

clear that there are circumstances where EMTALA protections are applicable to an infant

who is born alive, as that term is defined in 1 U.S.C. §8(b).

For example, assume that a hospital’s labor and delivery department meets the definition

of a “dedicated emergency department.” If an infant was born alive in that dedicated

emergency department, and a request was made on that infant’s behalf for screening for a

medical condition, (or if a prudent layperson would conclude, based on the infant’s

appearance or behavior, that the infant needed examination or treatment for an

emergency medical condition and that a request would have been made for screening) the

hospital and physician could be liable for violating EMTALA for failure to provide such

a screening examination. The born-alive infant is a “person” and an “individual” under 1

U.S.C. § 8(a) and the screening requirement of EMTALA applies to “any individual”

who comes to the emergency department.

Another example is a case of an infant born alive elsewhere on the hospital’s campus

(i.e., not in the hospital’s dedicated emergency department) and a prudent layperson

observer concluded, based on the born-alive infant’s appearance or behavior, that the

infant was suffering from an emergency medical condition. In such a circumstance, the

hospital and its medical staff are required to perform a medical screening examination on

that infant to determine whether or not an emergency medical condition existed. If the

hospital or its medical staff determined that the infant was suffering from an emergency

medical condition, the hospital has an obligation to admit the infant, or to comply with

either the stabilization requirement or the transfer requirement of EMTALA. The born-

alive infant is a “person” and an “individual,” as described above, and the stabilization

and transfer requirements of EMTALA apply to “any individual” who comes to the

hospital.

Finally, a third example is when the hospital admits a born-alive infant. EMTALA does

not apply to inpatients. If a born–alive infant is admitted to the hospital, EMTALA would

not apply to protect the infant in most circumstances. However, the Medicare COPs

would apply to the infant once he or she was admitted to the hospital as an inpatient.

5410.2 - Conduct of Investigations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If a complaint indicates that a born-alive infant has been denied a screening examination,

stabilizing treatment, or an appropriate transfer, the complaint is prioritized as an alleged

EMTALA violation. It is not necessary to determine that the hospital acted with an

improper motive in any failure to provide a screening examination, stabilizing treatment,

or an appropriate transfer in order to conclude that an EMTALA violation has occurred.

The Supreme Court of the United States has held that a finding of improper motive is not

required to conclude that an EMTALA violation has occurred.

5420 - Basis for Investigation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The SA enters alleged EMTALA violations into ACTS. The RO approves or disapproves

requests for EMTALA investigations in ACTS.

5430 - RO Direction of Investigation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

5430.1 - Evaluation of Allegation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO evaluates all complaints and refers to the SA those that warrant SA investigation.

The SA or the RO sends a letter to the complainant acknowledging the complaint and

informing the complainant of whether an investigation is warranted. The SA’s

responsibility is to verify whether a violation of 42 CFR 489.24 and/or the related

requirements at 42 CFR 489.20 occurred, and if there were other violations.

5430.2 - Request for Investigation of Allegations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO gives an initial verbal authorization to the SA to investigate the EMTALA

allegation, and then completes Form CMS-1541A in ACTS. If the RO identifies

Medicare conditions or standards it wants the SA to survey, related to the EMTALA

allegation at a deemed hospital, the RO completes Form CMS-2802 in ACTS. If the RO

identifies conditions or standards it wants the SA to survey related to the EMTALA

allegation at a non-deemed hospital, it directs the SA to conduct a survey by completing

Form CMS-1541A in ACTS.

5440 - Conducting an Investigation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

5440.1 - Selecting the Team

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The SA selects surveyors with a background in the profession or area to be investigated.

Preferably, the surveyors should have acute care training and experience. All surveyors

must be adequately trained in the evaluation of 42 CFR 489.24 cases. Physicians should

have experience in peer review.

5440.2 - Scheduling the Investigation

(Rev. 191, Issued: 07-19-19, Effective: 07-19-19, Implementation: 07-19-19)

Allegations of EMTALA violation against a non-deemed or deemed hospital or CAH

may represent a probable immediate jeopardy to the next individual who comes to the

hospital requesting examination and treatment for an emergency medical condition.

Therefore, when triaged as IJ by the RO, initiate the investigation within two business

days after receipt of the authorization from the RO. The onsite investigation must be

conducted on consecutive business days. The survey must be completed promptly and is

not to be interrupted by other activities. DO NOT ANNOUNCE ANY

INVESTIGATIONS.

Based on review of the complaint allegations by the RO, the EMTALA complaint may

also be prioritized as Non-IJ High. In these situations, the investigation must be initiated

within 45 business days of RO authorization. The onsite investigation must be conducted

on consecutive business days. The survey must be completed promptly, should not be

interrupted by other activities, and must be unannounced.

5440.3 - Guidelines for Surveyors Conducting Investigations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Attention to Procedures

The purpose of conducting the investigation is to ascertain whether or not the hospital

violated the EMTALA requirements. The survey must be in accordance with applicable

survey procedures and policies. Review instructions in Appendix V, before beginning

the investigation. The guidelines provide a detailed interpretation of the regulations.

Involvement of Complainants

Complainants, if known, receive a letter of acknowledgment from the SA or RO. Do not

disclose the identity of complainants. When information obtained during the

investigation appears to be in conflict with the information supplied by the complainant,

consult with the complainant, if this can be done without disclosing the person’s identity.

5440.4 - Conducting the Investigation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

A complete investigation consists of assessment of the following components:

• Completeness, adequacy and enforcement of policies and procedures which

address the provisions of 42 CFR 489.24;

• Prompt reports to the SA or CMS of receipt of an improperly transferred

individual by the receiving hospital;

• Presence and completeness of signs posted in emergency departments specifying

the rights of individuals under 42 CFR 489.24, and information indicating

whether the hospital participates in the Medicaid program;

• Maintenance of medical and other records related to individuals transferred to or

from the hospital for a period of five years from the date of transfer, including

discharged patients;

• Maintenance of a list of physicians who are on call to provide necessary

stabilizing treatment;

• Maintenance of a central log on each individual who comes to the hospital

seeking emergency services;

• Provision of an appropriate medical screening examination sufficient to determine

the presence of an emergency medical condition;

• Provision of necessary stabilizing treatment;

• Provision of no delay in examination or treatment in order to inquire about

insurance status or capability for payment;

• Provision of an appropriate transfer to another medical facility/provider;

• Provision of whistleblower protections; and

• Adequacy of responsibilities of the recipient hospital with specialized capabilities

(nondiscrimination).

The survey tasks are listed below for easy reference. See Appendix V for detailed

guidance.

• Task 1: Entrance Conference;

• Task 2: Case Selection Methodology;

• Task 3: Record review;

• Task 4: Interviews;

• Task 5: Exit Conference;

• Task 6: Professional Medical Review; and

• Task 7: Assessment of Compliance and Completion of the Deficiency Report.

After the investigation is concluded, complete a Form CMS-1541B (Exhibit 137). If one

or more of the provisions of EMTALA are not met, complete Form CMS-2567, using

“Principles of Documentation.” Describe in detail the facts of each individual case. In

addition, specify whether the hospital was aware of the problem and took steps to remedy

it prior to the survey. If a SA physician was a member of the investigation team, include

the medical review of the case. Use the “Physician Review Outline for Emergency Care

Obligations of Medicare Hospitals,” (Exhibit 138) for this purpose. In addition, complete

Form CMS-562. All the forms must be signed, showing the professional titles of all

participating surveyors, and dated.

A hospital may have multiple sites listed under its Medicare provider number. These sites

may not be in close proximity of each other and each site may have its own dedicated

emergency department (DED). In cases where the alleged EMTALA violation is against

a specific site of the hospital, the surveyors should focus their survey investigation at the

hospital site mentioned in the complaint intake. However, the surveyors should review

all EMTALA related Policies and Procedures of all sites of the hospital. The surveyors

need to survey the other sites of the hospital if the survey findings indicate that the

potential EMTALA violation maybe widespread.

5440.5 - Exit Conference

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

It is usually desirable and appropriate to conduct an exit conference. The surveyor(s) may

outline the basic facts uncovered during the onsite investigation. However, the

surveyor(s) must inform the hospital that the RO makes the final compliance

determination, and the determination is often made with information obtained after the

onsite investigation. Do not reveal the complainant and do not venture an opinion on

what determination the RO might make. The exit conference should include a

description of the process that is followed if the RO determines that a violation has

occurred.

5450 - Forwarding Report of Investigation to the RO

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Transmit the results of the investigation and your recommendations to the RO through

ACTS within 10 working days following completion of the onsite survey, if it appears

there may be an EMTALA violation. If there appears to be no violation, this time frame

may be extended to 15 working days, in order to allow the SA additional processing time.

Transmit the following materials to the RO through ACTS:

• Form CMS-562,”Medicare/Medicaid/CLIA Complaint Form;”

• Form CMS-1541B, “Responsibilities of Medicare Participating Hospitals in

Emergency Cases Investigation Report.” Recommend one or more of the actions

below on the form:

o None - This means the complaint was not substantiated;

o In Compliance, but Previously Out of Compliance - This means that the

hospital identified the problem on its own and took effective corrective

action prior to the investigation. In addition to this recommendation,

document on the Form CMS-2567 when the hospital identified the

violation or a similar problem, the corrective action taken, and the date of

such action. Also, document that the hospital has had no violations or

similar problems for at least the past 6 months;

o Recommend Termination (23 calendar day track) - This means that the

hospital is out of compliance with 42 CFR 489.24 or the related

requirements at 42 CFR 489.20(l), (m), (q) or (r) and the violation presents

an immediate jeopardy to patient health and safety;

o Recommend Termination (90 calendar day track) - This means that the

hospital is out of compliance with 42 CFR 489.24 or the related

requirements at 42 CFR 489.20(l), (m), (q) or (r), but the violation does

not present an immediate jeopardy to patient health and safety;

o Request Physician Review. This means that it is recommended that the

RO obtain a medical review of the case;

o Possible Discrimination. This means that it is believed that

discrimination occurred based on financial status, race, color, nationality,

handicap, or diagnosis.

• Form CMS-670, “Survey Team Composition and Workload Report;”

• Form CMS-2567, “Statement of Deficiencies and POC;”

NOTE: If the hospital had identified the deficiency and took corrective action

prior to the investigation, indicate on the Form CMS-2567 that the

requirement was not met. However, indicate on the Form CMS-2567

and the narrative report that the hospital took corrective action prior to

the investigation, what action was taken, and for how long the hospital

has been in compliance.

• Physician Review Outline for Emergency Care Obligations of Medicare Hospital

(if physician review was done by SA);

• Complaint investigation narrative;

• Copies of pertinent hospital policies and procedures that relate to the identified

deficiencies;

• Summary listing of all patients comprising the sample, including an explanation

of how and why the cases were selected for review;

• Summary of interviews.

Transmit the following to the RO by overnight mail:

• Copies of medical records for substantiated cases, medical records of individuals

named in the complaints, and other medical records for which a QIO review is

requested;

• Certification of benefits versus risks of the transfer, if this is a transfer case.

5460 - RO Review of Investigation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Upon receiving the case from the SA, the RO has 10 working days to review the

investigation findings. The RO requests a 5-day advisory medical review of the case by

the QIO to determine if there is an EMTALA violation. The RO has 5 working days to

review the case upon return from the QIO. With this information, and any other

additional information, the RO determines whether the hospital complied with the

EMTALA requirements and determines whether the violation constitutes an immediate

jeopardy to patient health and safety.

Prior to determining compliance or noncompliance, the RO is encouraged to confer with

the State Agency, and may confer with the hospital’s representatives. The RO shares as

much data as possible in accordance with current Privacy Act requirements.

5460.1 - Hospital Is In Compliance - No Past Violation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If the RO determines that the allegation is not substantiated and that the hospital is in

compliance with 42 CFR 489.24 and/or the related requirements at 42 CFR 489.20, the

RO notifies the hospital and forwards a copy of the letter to the SA. If the SA received

the complaint, it notifies the complainant that the complaint was not substantiated. If the

RO received the complaint, the RO notifies the complainant.

5460.2 - Hospital Is In Compliance - Past Violation, No Termination

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If the RO determines that the allegation was substantiated, but the hospital had identified

the violation on its own, took effective corrective action prior to the investigation, and

has had no EMTALA violations for at least the past 6 months, termination action is not

initiated. The RO notifies the hospital via a “Past Violation - No Termination Letter.”

The SA receives a copy of the letter through ACTS. The RO or SA sends a letter to the

complainant regarding the outcome of the investigation. Although no termination action

is taken, the RO refers past violations of 42 CFR 489.24 to the OIG for assessment of

civil monetary penalties (CMPs) if warranted.

5460.3 - Hospital Is Not in Compliance - Immediate Jeopardy to Patient

Health and Safety

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If the RO determines that the hospital is not in compliance and the violation represents an

immediate jeopardy to patient health and safety, the RO follows a 23 calendar-day

termination process. The termination procedures in §3010 are followed. Uncorrected

deficiencies that resulted in a violation of 42 CFR 489.24 may pose an immediate

jeopardy to people seeking emergency care. The RO notifies the complainant that the

complaint was substantiated. It also informs the hospital in writing of the specific

violations via a preliminary determination letter, and sends the hospital a copy of Form

CMS-2567. The SA receives a copy of the letter through ACTS.

5460.4 - Hospital Is Not in Compliance - Situation Does Not Pose an

Immediate Jeopardy to Patient Health and Safety

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If the RO determines that the hospital is not in compliance with the EMTALA

requirements, but the violation does not pose an immediate jeopardy to patient’s health

and safety, or the hospital took corrective action after the investigation to remove the

immediate jeopardy, the RO follows a 90 calendar-day termination process. The

termination procedures in §3012 are followed. The RO notifies the complainant that the

complaint was substantiated. The RO informs the hospital, in writing, of the specific

violations via a preliminary determination letter and sends the hospital a copy of Form

CMS-2567. The SA receives a copy of the letter through ACTS.

Examples of noncompliance that usually do not pose an immediate jeopardy:

1. A transfer which was appropriate, but not signed or dated by the physicians;

2. An appropriate, functioning, central log that on one particular day is not fully

completed; and

3. A written hospital policy that is missing, but is nonetheless being implemented.

The fact that the hospital has completed a POC should not be interpreted to mean that the

hospital admits violating the EMTALA requirements. However, the hospital is included

on the log of facilities with EMTALA violations, with the notation that an acceptable

POC was received by CMS, and termination action was stopped.

5465 - Procedures for the 5-day QIO Review of Alleged Violations of 42

CFR 489.24

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Prior to terminating a hospital from the Medicare program because of possible

violation(s) of EMTALA, the RO requests the QIO to assess whether the individual

involved was provided an appropriate medical screening examination, stabilizing

treatment, or an appropriate transfer as required by EMTALA.

The QIO 5-day review is mandatory if the RO determines that a case involves a possible

violation of 42 CFR 489.24 to support possible termination action against a hospital if in

fact it violated EMTALA. The RO is responsible for providing the QIO with all

information relevant to the case that is within its possession and control. The RO sends

the “Physician Review Outline for Emergency Care Obligations of Medicare Hospitals,”

(Exhibit 138) to capture this information. The QIO completes the review within 5

working days upon the receipt of RO’s request. The QIO sends the case file back to the

RO including a copy of the review report. It is not required that the physician reviewer

give the hospital and/or the physician an opportunity to respond to the allegations at this

time. If the affected physician and/or hospitals have questions concerning the case, they

are to consult with the RO.

The QIO Review is not required in cases where a delay in effecting a sanction would

jeopardize the health and safety of individuals or in situations where medical review is

inappropriate (e.g., cases where the individual was denied a medical screening

examination). The QIO 5-day review is required to seek medical expertise on whether

the individual was adequately screened, examined and treated.

The RO shall release upon request the 5 day QIO review to the affected physician and/or

hospital, after the RO has made a determination as to whether the hospital violated or is

in compliance with EMTALA. In addition, the RO may release the QIO review to the

complainant or his/her representative upon request. The physician reviewer’s identity is

confidential, therefore, when releasing the QIO report the physician’s identity is not to be

disclosed unless he or she consents to the release of their identity in accordance with the

disclosure regulations at 42 CFR 480.132 and 480.133.

The cases in which the RO determined that the hospital was in compliance with 42 CFR

489.24 but in violation of 42 CFR 489.20 of the EMTALA regulation do not need to be

forwarded to the QIO for review. The RO takes action as warranted.

5470 - Termination Procedures for EMTALA Violations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

5470.1 - Procedures for Termination when the EMTALA Violation is an

Immediate Jeopardy to Patient Health and Safety

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

In cases where the RO determined that an immediate jeopardy existed, after a 5-day QIO

advisory review has been completed, the RO follows the termination procedures in

§3010. The processing timeframes are the maximum allowed. The termination

procedures are not postponed or stopped unless evidence of correction of the deficiencies

or proof that the violation did not exist is provided by the hospital to the RO. The RO

forwards the supporting documents to the QIO (for a 60 day QIO review) in order to

provide a medical opinion on the case. The RO refers the case to the OIG that has the

responsibility for assessment of CMPs against the hospital and/or physician and

physician exclusion provisions for violations of 42 CFR 489.24. The case is also referred

to the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) because OCR may take action under the Hill-Burton

Subpart G Community Services regulations at 42 CFR 124.603(b) (1).

The termination track starts on the date that the RO makes the determination of

noncompliance with 42 CFR 489.24. It is the date of the preliminary determination

letter. The letter is forwarded to the hospital by the fastest method available (fax, e-mail

or telephone). In addition, a written letter follows up by mail. The preliminary

determination letter informs the hospital of:

• The RO’s findings based on the investigation and the results of medical review;

• The projected termination date (the 23rd calendar day from the date of the

preliminary determination letter);

• The date on which the RO issues a Notice of Termination Letter and notifies the

public (at least two calendar days, but no more than four calendar days prior to

the termination date); and

• That the hospital may avoid the termination action and notice to the public by

either providing acceptable POCs for the deficiencies or by successfully showing

that the deficiencies did not exist. In either case, the necessary information must

be furnished to the CMS RO in time for the SA to verify the corrections before

the projected termination date.

If, during the resurvey, the SA finds that the provider had implemented systems and

processes to ensure that the likelihood of further violation is remote and there is adequate

evidence that the provider is in compliance with the requirements, the termination action

is rescinded and the provider is put back in compliance.

If, during the resurvey, the SA finds that the provider has not adequately implemented

systems and processes to ensure compliance, the RO gives the hospital an additional 67

days or a total of 90 days (23 plus 67) to achieve compliance.

This allows the hospital time to prove that the corrective action is good for the long-term

(i.e., the corrective action is adequate to ensure that no further violations will occur). The

RO directs the SA to conduct a second survey by the 60th calendar day. On the resurvey,

the surveyor(s) reviews patients’ emergency department (ED) records and other relevant

documents for the period since the last survey to assess continued compliance. If the

hospital fails to achieve compliance, it is terminated from the Medicare program. The

RO sends the complainant a letter reporting the final results of the investigation.

If the termination takes place and the hospital desires to become re-certified as a

Medicare provider, the hospital must provide reasonable assurance that compliance will

be maintained. The procedures at §2016 are followed.

5470.2 - Procedures for Termination When the EMTALA Violation is

Not Immediate Jeopardy to Patient Health and Safety

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

In cases where the RO determined that a violation existed but not an immediate jeopardy,

after a 5-day QIO advisory review has been completed when it was warranted, the RO

follows the termination procedures in §3012 The processing timeframes are the

maximum allowed. The termination procedures are not postponed or stopped unless

evidence of correction of the deficiencies or proof that the violation did not exist is

provided to the RO by the hospital. If warranted, the RO forwards supporting documents

to the QIO (for a 60 day QIO review) in order to provide a medical opinion on the case.

The RO refers the case to the OIG, if warranted, that has the responsibility for assessment

of CMPs against the hospital and/or physician and physician exclusion provisions for

violations of 42 CFR 489.24 The case is also referred to the Office for Civil Rights

(OCR) because OCR may take action under the Hill-Burton Subpart G Community

Services regulations at 42 CFR 124.603(b)(1)

The termination track starts on the date that the RO makes the determination of

noncompliance with 42 CFR 489.24 and/or the related requirements at 42 CFR 489.20. It

is the date of the preliminary determination letter.

5480 - Procedures for QIO Review of Confirmed EMTALA Violation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Before imposing sanctions under §1867 of the Act for violations of 42 CFR 489.24, 42

CFR 489.24(h) requires that CMS obtain consultation from the QIO. The OIG holds the

authority to assess CMPs against the hospital or physicians or to exclude physicians from

the Medicare program for violations of 42 CFR 489.24.

5480.1 - Procedures for Coordinating 60 day QIO Review

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO requests the QIO to provide a medical opinion on EMTALA violation cases

within 60 calendar days. The cases referred for 60-day QIO review are outlined in

§5480B. The RO uses the “Model Letter Requesting QIO Review of a Confirmed

Violation of 42 CFR 489.24 for Purposes of Assessing Civil Monetary Penalties or

Excluding Physicians,” (Exhibit 212). The QIO provides the physician and the hospital

reasonable notice of its review a reasonable opportunity for discussion, and an

opportunity for the physician and hospital to submit additional information before issuing

its report. (Instructions on notice of review and opportunity for discussion, and

additional information that follow the regulatory requirements in 42 CFR 489.24(h) are

found in §§9100-9150 of the QIO Manual.)

The RO is responsible for providing the QIO with all information relevant to the case that

is within its possession and control. The RO sends the “Physician Review Outline for

Emergency Care Obligations of Medicare Hospitals,” (Exhibit 138) to capture this

information. This outline is helpful for organizing the review of the medical record. The

specialty of the reviewing physician should be matched to the specialty of the physician

who attended the patient and/or the individual’s medical condition. If the patient was not

seen by a physician, the QIO uses the diagnosis of the patient or the usual physician

assignment practice of the hospital to determine the specialty of the physician reviewer.

Within 60 calendar days of receiving the case, the QIO must submit to the RO a report on

its findings. The report provides an expert medical opinion regarding whether the

individual involved had an emergency medical condition, whether the individual’s

emergency medical condition was stabilized, whether the individual was transferred

appropriately, and whether there are any medical utilization or quality of care issues

involved in the case. Upon request, the RO provides copies of the QIO report to the

affected physician and/or hospital after all investigative activity has been completed.

When there was no screening examination or when a delay would jeopardize the health or

safety of individuals, QIO Review is not required before the OIG may impose CMPs or

exclude a physician from the Medicare program. In addition, if the QIO determines, after

a preliminary review, that there was an appropriate medical screening examination and

the individual did not have an emergency medical condition, the QIO returns the case to

the RO with its documented opinion. The RO will close the case and no referral to OIG is

necessary.

When the RO determines that a hospital was non-compliant with the requirements of 42

CFR 489.24, one of its notice requirements is to notify the OIG that the violation was

confirmed and that termination action was initiated. (See Exhibit 208.) The RO

completes the notification after receipt of the QIO 60-day review report. If the QIO

report does not support an EMTALA violation, the RO closes the case without referring

it to the OIG.

The RO forwards the following documents to the OIG:

• Form CMS-1541B;

• Form CMS-2567;

• Medical record;

• Summary of interviews;

• Explanation of sample selection;

• Copies of pertinent hospital policies and procedures related to the identified

deficiencies;

• Complaint investigation narrative;

• Certification of benefits versus risks of the transfer (if this is a transfer case);

• Copy of the 5 working-day advisory QIO Review, and

• Copy of the 60 calendar-day advisory QIO Review.

The RO sends the above information and any other pertinent documentation in its

possession to the OIG at the following address:

Office of Inspector General

Office of Counsel to the Inspector General

Department of Health and Human Services

Room 5527, Cohen Building

330 Independence Avenue SW

Washington, D.C. 20201

5480.2 - EMTALA Case Referral to OIG

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

CMS refers appropriate cases to the OIG for investigation. Periodically, OIG will advise

us of the criteria they would prefer CMS to use in referring cases. Examples of the types

of cases that may be referred include:

1. Financial Screening - The hospital and/or responsible physician refused to

examine or treat a person based on the person’s insurance status or inability to pay

a fee. The financial basis for the decision must be clearly supported by evidence

in the file, e.g., documented policy, interview reports.

2. Patient with Trauma or Acute Emergency Condition - The hospital and/or

responsible physician (including an on-call physician who failed to come to the

hospital) failed to screen, stabilize, or appropriately transfer (or, in the case of a

hospital with specialized capabilities or facilities, refused to accept an appropriate

transfer of) a person with trauma, e.g., a severe head injury, or other acute

emergency condition, e.g., heart attack or stroke, requiring immediate and

substantial medical intervention.

3. High Risk Event (such as Birth) Occurs Prior to Arrival at Another Hospital

- The hospital and/or responsible physician discharged or refused to screen/treat a

person who gave birth (or is subject to another high risk medical event) prior to

arriving at another hospital (especially if transport is by private vehicle).

4. Death or Serious Harm Results from Dump - The evidence in the file

(including the QIO Review) demonstrates that the dumping violation caused

serious medical harm or death to the victim of the violation.

5. Egregious Violation Prioritized by CMS - CMS concludes that a CMP is

appropriate because of the seriousness of the violation (the person must have had

an emergency medical condition) and other relevant factors, e.g., long history of

noncompliance, hospital policy resulting in violations, pattern of serious

violations, knowing and willful violation. This category is for those cases that

CMS determines are very serious and merit a CMP but do not fit within other

categories identified by OIG.

5480.3 - Releasing QIO Assessment

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Upon request, the RO may release QIO assessment(s) to the physician and/or hospital or

the affected individual, or his/her representative. The QIO physician’s identity is

confidential unless he/she consents to its release. The QIO Review may be released

pursuant to the requirements of 42 CFR 480.132 and 480.133.

Sections 5500 to 5590 relate CLIA.

5500 - Complaints Involving Unaccredited Laboratories

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

NOTE: This section applies to complaints against laboratories that hold a CLIA

certificate of compliance, certificate of waiver (COW), and certificate of PPM

(See §§5540-5590 for complaints regarding accredited laboratories).

A complaint is an allegation that could result in citing noncompliance with CLIA

requirements. A complaint may be substantiated or unsubstantiated as a result of an

investigation or survey. A substantiated complaint is one resulting in a finding of

noncompliance at the time of the investigation, or a finding that noncompliance was

proven to exist, but was corrected prior to the investigation. An unsubstantiated

complaint is an allegation where sufficient evidence could not be found to conclude that

noncompliance with CLIA requirements existed during the investigation or at the time of

the alleged violation. A complaint may be received in either the SA or the RO. The

receiving organization should follow the procedures outlined below.

The SA obtains the following information for every complaint:

• Complainant’s name, address, and telephone number, unless the complainant

requests anonymity;

• Laboratory’s name and address; and

• Description of problem, (e.g., personnel, places, and dates of occurrence).

5500.1 - Control

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The SA establishes a file for the complaint and logs the action in a control system. The

system may be manual or automated, but must facilitate tracking and control of the

complaint.

5500.2 - Acknowledgment

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If the complainant is known, the SA promptly issues written acknowledgment that the

complaint is being investigated. The SA should not delay acknowledgment pending an

investigation unless the investigation takes place within three working days. The SA

must take appropriate precautions to protect the complainant’s anonymity and privacy.

The SA maintains a copy or record of the notification with the complaint documentation.

5500.3 - Evaluation

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The SA evaluates any complaint to determine whether it should be investigated by the

SA, or whether it should be forwarded to the RO for investigation or referral to the

appropriate authority (e.g., OCR, OSHA, RO). The SA assesses the complaint to

determine if an immediate survey is necessary. While the SA will perform most

complaint surveys, complaints involving State-operated facilities are the responsibility of

the RO. When the SA does not have jurisdiction, it should forward the complaint to the

RO within three working days. If referral is not necessary, the SA considers whether or

not any special notification is appropriate.

If a complaint is especially significant, sensitive, or attracting broad public or media

attention, the SA informs the RO immediately.

5500.4 - Scheduling Investigations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The SA investigates within two working days of receiving the complaint and focuses on

the specific problem area if the complaint involves possible immediate jeopardy to

patient health and safety. Otherwise, the SA follows procedures for prioritizing and

investigating certification-related complaints. Laboratories with complaints pending are

identified and given priority in scheduling of regular certification surveys.

5500.5 - Conducting Investigations

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The SA investigates complaints by means of an onsite survey, by telephone, by electronic

communication, by letter, or by a documentary review. Complaint investigations are

unannounced.

For onsite complaint investigations, the SA performs a full or partial survey based on the

allegations. If a complaint alleges generalized inappropriate laboratory practices, the SA

evaluates compliance with applicable requirements or conducts a full survey, as needed.

If the complaint is of a specific nature, the SA performs a survey focused on areas

relevant to the complaint.

5500.6 - Conducting Investigations in a Laboratory with a Certificate of

Waiver

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO authorizes an unannounced complaint survey of a laboratory holding a certificate

of waiver only if it is based on a substantial allegation of noncompliance. The fact that a

deficiency is not at the Condition-level does not preclude taking adverse action based on

provisions contained in 42 CFR 493.1840. As with other laboratories, the SA

investigates complaints made against laboratories with a certificate of waiver by means of

an onsite survey, by telephone, letter, or by a review of documents.

The SA performs the onsite investigation based on the allegation and determines whether

a laboratory is performing only waived tests and if the laboratory is following the

manufacturer’s instructions for performing the tests (See Appendix C).

5500.7 - Conducting Investigations in a Laboratory with a Certificate

for PPM Procedures

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO authorizes an unannounced complaint survey of a laboratory holding a certificate

for PPM procedures only if based on a substantial allegation of noncompliance. This

survey should not differ from a complaint survey done in any other laboratory performing

non-waived testing, as all requirements for moderate complexity apply except routine

survey.

Substantial indication that a laboratory is performing tests that do not appear on the PPM

procedures test list; e.g., through billing procedures, should prompt a complaint survey of

a certificate for PPM procedures laboratory followed by either proper registration or

appropriate sanctions.

5500.8 - Post Investigation Actions

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Following the investigation, the SA records any deficiencies on a Form CMS-2567 and

provides it to the facility using regular procedures. Subsequent actions depend on the

severity and nature of the deficiencies cited and the facility’s willingness or ability to

correct them.

When deficiencies are identified, the SA initiates actions as follows:

1. Condition-Level Deficiencies - Immediate Jeopardy - Certifies noncompliance

and initiates procedures to recommend imposing alternative and principal

sanctions.

2. Condition-Level Deficiencies - No Immediate Jeopardy; Facility Provides an

Acceptable POC - Certifies noncompliance and initiates procedures to

recommend imposing alternative sanctions based on the severity and nature of the

deficiencies found.

3. Lower Level Deficiencies - Facility Provides an Acceptable POC - Certifies

compliance based upon an acceptable POC and assembles documentation for RO

review.

4. Lower Level Deficiencies - Facility Unable or Unwilling to Provide

Acceptable POC - A facility with deficiencies may not participate without an

acceptable POC. The SA recommends sanction action to the RO.

When no deficiencies are identified, no certification action is required.

5500.9 - Resolution/Closeout

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

1 - Unsubstantiated

The SA enters the unsubstantiated complaint into ACTS and documents the facility’s

certification file.

2 - Substantiated

The SA reports substantiated complaints using the Form CMS-2567 and any appropriate

supporting documentation. The SA logs summary information in the control system and

files a copy of the complaint documents in the facility’s certification file. The SA enters

complaints into ACTS. The laboratory will be charged a fee to cover the cost of the

survey if noncompliance is documented.

The SA closes out all complaints with a follow-up notice to the complainant with the

findings and disposition of the complaint. The SA should send this notice soon after the

investigation and retains a copy with the complaint record.

The SA provides follow-up reports, as necessary, to any other appropriate parties such as

the State Medicaid agency and/or initial referring agencies. The SA must be sure to

protect the anonymity and privacy of the complainant.

The SA inputs the investigation information into ACTS within 45 days of the completion

of the complaint survey.

5510 - CLIA-Exempt Laboratory Complaint Investigations - General

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

Complaints may be from any source, including verbal, written, electronic or in the media.

Complaints are investigated if they meet the following criteria:

• If substantiated, would have an impact on the health and safety of the general

public or individuals served by the laboratory, and

• Would raise doubt as to the laboratory's compliance with one or more CLIA

Conditions and/or requirements.

An attempt to maintain the anonymity of the complainant should always be made.

There are a number of entities that must address laboratory complaints including: CMS

Central and Regional Offices, the state agencies (including those with state licensure

programs), approved states, and accreditation organizations. Each of these entities shares

a strong interest in ensuring the quality of patient care and the services provided by

laboratories. When the complaint involves more than one of these entities, there should

be coordination and communication to ensure an effective and timely resolution of the

issue.

5520 - Review of CLIA-Exempt Laboratory Complaints

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If the RO receives a complaint against a CLIA-exempt laboratory, the RO determines

what action is appropriate. The RO may do any of the following:

• Determine the severity of the complaint;

• Send the information to the approved State for their action;

• Conduct a survey (full or partial);

• Investigate the complaint during the course of a validation survey (full survey), if

it is conducted within 45 days of the laboratory’s licensure survey and the

complaint does not present immediate jeopardy concerns.

• If the seriousness of the complaint or the circumstances warrant, the RO should

invoke the Rapid Response Alert Protocol.

NOTE: Transfusion-related fatality investigations must be conducted by the RO. They

may not be delegated to the approved State; however, the approved State may

accompany the RO on the investigation. In either case, there must be

coordination and communication between the RO and the State. Where State

laws apply to transfusion-related incidents, the approved State program should

follow its established procedures and coordinate with the RO.

The RO Reviews the approved State program’s complaint activities as part of the overall

annual review. The RO has the discretion to maintain its own complaint tracking system

for those that have been forwarded to the approved State program. However, this

information should be an integral part of the State’s annual review.

If the approved State program receives a complaint against a CLIA-exempt laboratory,

the approved State program determines what action is appropriate. If the approved State

sanctions a CLIA-exempt laboratory in any way (e.g., licensure is withdrawn), it must

notify the RO within 30 days.

If the laboratory against which the complaint is alleged is accredited, the State must also

notify the accreditation organization.

5530 - Conducting Complaint Investigations and Surveys for CLIA-

Exempt Laboratories

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO will complete the “Medicare/Medicaid/CLIA Complaint Form,” Form CMS-562,

for every complaint investigation it performs in a CLIA-exempt laboratory. When an

investigation can be conducted via telephone (e.g., personnel credentials), the RO should

do so. The RO obtains the following information for every allegation:

• Complainant’s name and address, unless complainant requests anonymity. Do not

disclose the identity of the complainant to the laboratory;

• Laboratory’s name and address; and

• Description of problem, involving names, places, and dates.

The RO follows the same procedures for control and acknowledgement indicated in

§5500. Complaints involving potential immediate jeopardy will be investigated by the

RO within 2 working days of receipt. Complaints not involving potential immediate

jeopardy are investigated within 45 days. All complaint surveys are unannounced.

If a laboratory representative refuses to permit a complaint survey, the RO contacts the

State and requests that it contact the laboratory to explain the protocol and, if necessary,

suggest that the State take enforcement action against the CLIA-exempt laboratory. The

RO conducts the complaint survey in accordance with the survey protocol and uses the

appropriate survey forms specified in Exhibit 63 and the outcome-oriented protocol

found in Appendix C.

Initially, the RO focuses the survey only on the Condition(s) or requirement(s) related to

the complaint area(s). If the complaint is substantiated or if additional deficiencies are

found during the course of the investigation, the RO expands the scope of the survey to

include additional standards, conditions, and other CLIA requirements. If the complaint

is not substantiated, the RO notifies the laboratory that it is in compliance with the CLIA

Condition(s) (Exhibit 243). The RO also notifies the approved State program of the

Condition-level compliance (Exhibit 244).

At the exit conference, the RO informs the laboratory of the deficiencies found. If the

deficiencies pose immediate jeopardy to the health and safety of individuals served by a

laboratory or that of the general public, the RO notifies the approved State program and

the laboratory within two working days by overnight mail and includes a copy of the

Form CMS-2567. The RO directs the State program to take the appropriate enforcement

action. (See Exhibits 231 and 228). The RO follows-up with the State program within

15 working days of its notification to the laboratory to verify that the enforcement action

has either been taken against the laboratory or that the laboratory has achieved

compliance with CLIA requirements.

If the State program fails to take appropriate enforcement action for an immediate

jeopardy case within 23 days of the RO’s notification, and the laboratory has not

achieved Condition-level compliance, the RO may request CO to either contact the State

or attempt other resolution to eliminate the jeopardy.

If the deficiencies do not pose immediate jeopardy to the health and safety of individuals

served by a laboratory or that of the general public, the RO prepares a Form CMS-2567

and forwards a letter along with the Form CMS-2567 to the laboratory and to the State

program within 10 working days of completing the survey. The State program is

responsible for taking any enforcement action, if necessary, monitoring the correction of

the deficiencies, and providing a report to the RO. (See Exhibit 231.)

The RO completes a Survey Team Composition and Workload Report, Form CMS-670,

for all complaint surveys and related activity.

If the approved State program fails to take appropriate enforcement action in non-

immediate jeopardy situations, the RO documents its files accordingly and notifies CO.

Failure to take and document the necessary enforcement action may subsequently

jeopardize current or future approval of the State's laboratory licensure program.

5540 - Complaint Investigations and Surveys of Accredited

Laboratories Under CLIA

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

There are a number of entities that must address laboratory complaints including: CMS

Central and Regional Offices, the state agencies (including those with state licensure

programs), approved states, and accreditation organizations. Each of these entities shares

a strong interest in ensuring the quality of patient care and the services provided by

laboratories. When the complaint involves more than one of these entities, there should

be coordination and communication to ensure an effective and timely resolution of the

issue.

The statutory basis for conducting surveys of accredited laboratories based on allegations

of noncompliance is found in §353(e)(2)(D) of the Public Health Service Act (PHSA).

Since accreditation organization (AO) requirements are equivalent to CLIA requirements,

a complaint may affect the laboratory’s accreditation status as well.

Complaints are investigated if they meet the following criteria:

• If substantiated, would have an impact on the health and safety of the general

public or individuals served by the laboratory, and

• Would raise doubt as to the laboratory's compliance with one or more CLIA

Conditions and/or requirements.

The RO should evaluate the complaint and take appropriate investigatory action. If the

seriousness of the complaint or the circumstances warrant, the RO should invoke the

Rapid Response Alert Protocol. Every effort should be made to secure a written form of

the complaint, while maintaining anonymity, if requested.

All complaint surveys are unannounced and conducted according to outcome-oriented

survey principles (See Appendix C). If an investigation can be conducted by letter or

telephone, in lieu of an onsite survey, those means should be utilized.

Upon receipt, all complaints are logged and tracked and the same information as for CMS

certified laboratories is collected, monitored and maintained (see Section 5500).

5550 - RO Direction of Complaint Investigation of an Accredited

Laboratory

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

The RO has primary responsibility for the coordination of all activities involving

complaints relating to an accredited laboratory.

This includes:

• Ensuring that all pertinent information concerning the complaint is obtained;

• Assessing the level of severity of the complaint;

• Determining actions required for investigation;

• Determining whether multiple AOs may be involved; and

• When warranted (e.g., in cases potentially involving media coverage,

Federal/State Congressional or political interest, legal intervention, etc.),

informing and coordination with all affected parties, including AO's, State

Agencies and Central Office.

Although the RO has the lead role in directing the investigation of complaints involving

accredited laboratories, all affected entities (i.e., State Agencies, AO's, Central Office)

share responsibility in ensuring timely and effective action is taken.

Complaints received by the SA:

If the SA receives a substantial allegation of noncompliance directly from a complainant

about an accredited laboratory, it promptly acknowledges receipt of the complaint and

advises the complainant that it is being forwarded to the RO for action. The SA forwards

a copy of the acknowledgment letter and the complaint to the RO. This includes SAs

with a State laboratory licensure program.

Complaints received by the RO:

If the complaint is received directly by the RO, the RO will promptly send a letter to the

complainant acknowledging the complaint and advising the complainant of the intended

course of action, and subsequently the results of any investigation, if appropriate, and of

the corrective action taken.

In either case (complaint received by SA or RO), the RO evaluates the complaint and has

the lead in determining the course of action. The RO determines whether the RO, the

SA, or the AO, including multiple AOs if circumstances so warrant, will investigate the

complaint. The RO will also determine whether one or multiple AOs may be impacted

by the complaint and, if so, alert them of the pending action. In certain instances the RO

may enlist CO support to help determine the most effective course of action.

If the RO determines that the SA should investigate the complaint, the RO prepares a

“Request for Complaint Investigation or Validation Survey of Accredited Laboratory,

Form CMS-2802A,” (See Exhibit 107) and a “Medicare/Medicaid/CLIA Complaint,”

Form CMS-562, and forwards them to the SA along with a copy of the complaint and

notifies the AO. If the RO authorizes the SA to perform a full survey (all specialties and

subspecialties covered by the certificate), and the survey can be performed within 90 days

of the AO’s inspection, the survey can be counted in the SA’s validation workload.

If the RO determines that the complaint involves a potential immediate jeopardy to the

individuals served by the laboratory, or to the general public, the SA investigates the

complaint within two working days of receiving it from the RO. Otherwise, the RO will

direct the SA to investigate non-Immediate Jeopardy complaints within 45 days and

report their findings to the RO and AO at the conclusion of the survey.

Complaints investigated by AOs:

If the RO determines that the accreditation organization should carry out its own

investigation, it promptly forwards the complaint to the accreditation organization for

immediate attention. The RO will request to be notified of the results of any investigative

action taken. The RO will then notify the SA and, if warranted, CO.

NOTE: Transfusion-related fatality investigations must be conducted by the RO or

SA. Transfusion-related fatality investigations must not be referred to an

accreditation organization for action. However, the AO or multiple AOs,

as appropriate, should be notified when such an investigation is taking

place.

Complaints received by AOs:

Complaints received directly by AOs will be investigated under each AOs own standards

and procedures. If multiple AOs are potentially impacted, the AO receiving the complaint

will promptly inform the other AOs and a determination should be reached regarding the

need for coordinated action. In cases potentially involving media coverage, Federal/State

Congressional or political interest, legal intervention, etc., the SA, RO and CO should be

promptly alerted by the AO receiving the complaint and consulted concerning

appropriate action.

5560 - Conducting Complaint Survey of an Accredited Laboratory

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If an onsite survey is warranted, the SA will conduct an unannounced survey of an

accredited laboratory based on the substantial allegation of noncompliance. The SA

conducts the complaint survey in accordance with outcome-oriented principles (see

Appendix C). The SA conducts a focused complaint survey, as instructed by the RO on

Form CMS-2802A. If the SA finds additional deficiencies during the course of the

complaint investigation, it may expand the scope of the survey with RO approval.

At the exit conference, the SA informs the laboratory director of the deficiencies found

and the procedures to respond to them. If the deficiencies do not pose an immediate

jeopardy to the health and safety of individuals served by a laboratory, or to the general

public, the SA prepares a Form CMS-2567 and requests that the laboratory submit a POC

for all Condition-level deficiencies. Condition level deficiencies must be corrected;

those at the standard level are optional. The SA informs the laboratory that the Form

CMS-2567 will be made available to the public under the disclosure of survey

information provisions. The SA indicates to the laboratory that the “Statement of

Deficiencies” (Form CMS-2567) will be forwarded to the laboratory within 10 working

days and that the POC must be returned to the SA within 10 calendar days. Upon receipt

of the survey information and POC, the RO makes a determination of whether or not

sanctions will be imposed against the laboratory and notifies the AO.

5570 – Forwarding Investigation Report to RO

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If non-immediate jeopardy is found, the SA will submit the appropriate information as

specified in the List of Documents in the Certification Packet (see Exhibit 63) to the RO,

or through an update to ACTS within 45 days of completing the survey and notifies the

RO of the entry. If the laboratory chooses not to submit a POC when deficiencies are

found, the SA reports any known information about the laboratory’s efforts to correct

deficiencies to the RO and AO.

5580 - Accredited Laboratory Found in Compliance Following a

Complaint Survey

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If after review of the documentation the RO determines that the accredited laboratory is

in compliance with all CLIA Condition-level requirements, it officially notifies the

laboratory and forwards a copy of this letter to the SA and the AO. This letter advises

that the accreditation organization may contact the laboratory about correcting any

deficiencies below Condition-level.

5590 - Accredited Laboratory Found Not in Condition-level Compliance

Following a Complaint Survey

(Rev. 18, Issued: 03-17-06; Effective/Implementation Dates: 03-17-06)

If the deficiencies found pose an immediate jeopardy to the health and safety of

individuals, the SA prepares the Form CMS-2567, (which is included as part of the List

of Documents in the Certification Package, See Exhibit 63) and notifies the RO and sends

Form CMS-2576 to the laboratory within 2 working days. RO will notify the AO. Based

on the information forwarded, and the laboratory’s POC, the RO determines if sanctions

are to be imposed against the laboratory. The RO will then notify the AO.

Should the immediate jeopardy situation be corrected before the adverse action is taken

or completed, the SA will advise the laboratory that it will revisit it to inspect all

remaining Conditions not in compliance. The RO will notify the AO.

If non-immediate jeopardy is found, the SA will submit the appropriate information as

specified in the List of Documents in the Certification Packet (See Exhibit 63) to the RO,

or through an update to ACTS within 45 days of completing the survey and notifies the

RO of the entry. The POC should also be forwarded to the RO. If the laboratory chooses

not to submit a POC when deficiencies are found, the SA reports any known information

about the laboratory’s efforts to correct deficiencies to the RO and the RO will notify the

AO and the laboratory that the laboratory is out of compliance and has been placed under

SA monitoring jurisdiction (see Exhibit 241). The laboratory is monitored by the SA, RO,

and/or AO until it reaches Condition-level compliance or its certificate of accreditation is

revoked. A copy of all correspondence is provided to the accreditation organization by

the RO.

For standard only deficiencies, responsibility rests with the AO to follow-up and pursue

corrective action. The laboratory continues to be accredited by its accreditation

organization and retains its CLIA certificate of accreditation during this monitoring

period; however, it becomes subject to the same CLIA requirements, survey and

enforcement procedures as applied to non-accredited laboratories found out of

compliance.

CROSSWALK TO THE OLD CHAPTER 5

A crosswalk from sections of the State Operations Manual Chapter Five published 5-

21-2004 to the revised chapter five is as follows:

Name of Old Section

Old

Section

Number

New

Section

Number

Name of New Section

Management of Complaints and

Incidents

5000

Management of Complaints and

Incidents

Intake Process

5010

Intake Process

Triage and Priority Assignment

5020

5070

Priority Assessment for Nursing

Homes, Deemed and Non-Deemed

Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA

Priority Definitions

5030

5075

Priority Definitions for Nursing

Homes, Deemed and Non-Deemed

Providers/Suppliers, and EMTALA

Investigation Findings and

Reports

5040

5080

Investigation Findings and Reports

CMS Regional Office

Responsibility for Monitoring

SA Management of Complaints

and Incidents

5050

CMS Regional Office

Responsibility for Monitoring SA

Management of Complaints and

Incidents

Aspen Complaints/Incidents

Tracking System (ACTS)

5060

ASPEN Complaints/Incidents

Tracking System (ACTS)

Investigation of Complaints

Against Accredited/Deemed

Providers and Suppliers

5100

Investigation of Complaints for

Deemed Providers/Suppliers

Basis for Investigation of

Complaints Against

Accredited/Deemed Providers

and Suppliers

5110

5100.1

Basis for Investigation

RO Direction of Accredited

Hospital Complaint Investigation

5120

5210

Processing of Complaints

Originating with or Investigated by

Conducting an Accredited

Hospital Complaint Validation

Survey

5130

5050

CMS RO Responsibility for

Monitoring SA Management of

Complaints and Incidents

Forwarding Investigation Report

to RO

5140

5050

CMS RO Responsibility for

Monitoring SA Management of

Complaints and Incidents

Accredited Hospital Found in

Compliance Following

Complaint Validation Survey

5150

5100

Investigation of Complaints for

Deemed Providers/Suppliers

Accredited Hospital Found Not

in Compliance Following

Complaint Validation Survey

5160

5100

Investigation of Complaints for

Deemed Providers/Suppliers

Reinstatement to Accreditation

Organization Jurisdiction

5170

5100.2

Post-Survey Procedures

Termination of Accredited

Hospital

5180

5100.2

Post-Survey Procedures

Investigating Complaints

Involving ESRD Services

Provided by Accredited

Hospitals

5190

5160

Investigating Complaints Involving

ESRD Services Provided by

Deemed Hospitals

Investigation of Complaints

Against Other Than

Accredited/Deemed Providers

and Suppliers

5200

Investigating Complaints for Non-

Deemed Providers/Suppliers,

Excluding Nursing Homes

SA Processing of General,

Certification-Related Complaints

5210

5010

General Intake Process

Hospital Restraints/Seclusion

Death Reporting and

Investigation

5240

5140

Hospital Restraints/Seclusion

Death Reporting and Investigation

Complaints Involving HIV-

Infected Individuals

5250

5150

Complaints Involving HIV-

Infected Individuals

Investigations Involving Alleged

EMTALA Violations

5300-

5400

5400-

5500

Investigations Involving Alleged

EMTALA Violations

Complaints Involving

Unaccredited Laboratories

5500-

5590

5500-

5590

Complaints Involving

Unaccredited Laboratories

Chapter Five State Operations Manual

Acronyms

(Rev. 18, 03-17-06)

ACTS ASPEN Complaint Tracking System

AIDS Auto-immune deficiency syndrome

AO Accreditation Organization

the ACT Social Security Act

CFC Conditions for Coverage

CFR Code of Federal Regulations

CLIA Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments

CMP Civil Monetary Penalties

CMS Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services

CO Central Office

CoP Conditions of Participation

COW Certificate of Waiver

DED Dedicated Emergency Department

DHHS Department of Health and Human Services

EMS Emergency Medical System

EMTALA Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act

ESRD End-Stage Renal Disease

FDA Food and Drug Administration

HHA Home Health Agency

HIV Human Immunodeficiency Virus

IJ Immediate Jeopardy

JCAHO Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations

LSC Life Safety Code

NF Nursing Facility

NW Networks

OCR Office of Civil Rights

OIG Office of Inspector General

OSHA Occupational Safety and Health Administration

P & A Protection and Advocacy Group

PHSA Public Health Service Act

POC Plan of Correction

PPM Provider Perform Microscopy (PPM) Procedures

PRTF Psychiatric Residential Treatment Facility

QIO Quality Improvement Organization

RFP Requirements for Participation

RNHCI Religious Non-Medical Health Care Institutions

RO Regional Office

SA State Agency

SMA State Medicaid Agency

SNF Skilled Nursing Facility

SOM State Operations Manual

USC United States Code

SOM Chapter 5 - Page 103

Transmittals Issued for this Chapter

Rev #

Issue Date

Subject

Impl Date

CR#

R212SOM

02/10/2023

Revisions to State Operations Manual (SOM)

Chapter 5

10/24/2022

N/A

R208SOM

10/21/2022

Revisions to State Operation Manual (SOM),

Appendix PP

Guidance to Surveyors for Long

Term Care Facilities

10/24/2022

N/A

R191SOM

07/19/2019

Revisions to the State Operations Manual

(SOM) Chapter 5 and Appendix V

07/19/2019

N/A

R155SOM

06/10/2016

Revisions to State Operations Manual (SOM)

Chapter 5

06/10/2016

N/A

R120SOM

09/19/2014

Revisions to State Operations Manual (SOM)

Chapter 5

09/19/2014

N/A

R88SOM

08/27/2013

Revisions to State Operations Manual (SOM)

Chapter 5

07/19/2013

N/A

R86SOM

07/19/2013

Revisions to State Operations Manual (SOM)

Chapter 5 – Rescinded and replaced by

Transmittal 88

07/19/2013

N/A

R50SOMA

07/10/2009

Revisions to Chapter 5, "Complaint

Procedures"

07/10/2009

N/A

R18SOMA

03/17/2006

Revisions to Chapter 5, "Complaint

Procedures"

03/17/2006

N/A

R01SOM

05/21/2004

Initial Issuance of Pub 100-07

N/A